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AVIATION / SAMPLE COLLECTION

Questions worth discussing.

574 FAA samples and 185 Canadian PSTAR questions, kept separate by jurisdiction. Bring the ones you’re unsure about to your instructor, and follow the source when you need the full context.

Private Pilot

PAR · 61 samples
01Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than
  1. September 30, 2015.
  2. September 1, 2016.
  3. September 30, 2016.

Published code: PA.I.B.K1b · PDF page 2

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02With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
  1. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
  2. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
  3. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Published code: PA.I.A.K1 · PDF page 2

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03A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
  1. taxi at a faster speed.
  2. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
  3. return to the starting point on the airport.

Published code: PA.III.A.K3 · PDF page 2

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04During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is
  1. 1 mile.
  2. 3 miles.
  3. 5 miles.

Published code: PA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 2

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05Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports
  1. regardless of weather conditions.
  2. only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
  3. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Published code: PA.III.A.K2 · PDF page 2

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06During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
  1. 500 feet.
  2. 1,000 feet.
  3. 1,500 feet.

Published code: PA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 3

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07Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
  1. Class C.
  2. Class E.
  3. Class G.

Published code: PA.III.A.K2 · PDF page 3

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08Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of
  1. all passengers.
  2. the pilot in command.
  3. the right seat pilot.

Published code: PA.II.B.K1 · PDF page 3

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09A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
  1. 3312.5 hours.
  2. 3395.5 hours.
  3. 3402.5 hours.

Published code: PA.I.B.K1b · PDF page 3

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10When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state
  1. the pilot in command`s full name and address.
  2. a summary of your qualifications.
  3. whether the flight is VFR or IFR.

Published code: PA.I.C.K1 · PDF page 3

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11Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
  1. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.
  2. Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
  3. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

Published code: PA.I.C.K3k · PDF page 4

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12(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
  1. 230° true at 56 knots.
  2. 230° true at 39 knots.
  3. 230° magnetic at 56 knots.

Published code: PA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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13The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with
  1. formation of the anvil top.
  2. the start of precipitation.
  3. continuous downdrafts.

Published code: PA.I.C.K3h · PDF page 4

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14(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figures 32 and 33.) Which action can adjust the airplane`s weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff? Front seat occupants: 425 lb Rear seat occupants: 300 lb Fuel, main tanks: 44 gal
  1. Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
  2. Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
  3. Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

Published code: PA.I.F.K2f · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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15What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
  1. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
  2. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
  3. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

Published code: PA.I.E.K3 · PDF page 5

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16Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
  1. 1200
  2. 7600
  3. 7700

Published code: PA.III.A.K4 · PDF page 5

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17What is one purpose of wing flaps?
  1. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
  2. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
  3. To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

Published code: PA.I.G.K1b · PDF page 5

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18With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
  1. more susceptible to icing.
  2. equally susceptible to icing.
  3. less susceptible to icing.

Published code: PA.IX.C.K1b · PDF page 5

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19What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
  1. Maneuvering speed.
  2. Turbulent or rough-air speed.
  3. Never-exceed speed.

Published code: PA.I.F.R2 · PDF page 5

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20(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
  1. landing.
  2. taxiing and takeoff.
  3. taxiing and landing.

Published code: PA.II.D.K3 · PDF page 6 · Figure/reference required

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21(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
  1. above the glide path.
  2. below the glide path.
  3. on the glide path.

Published code: PA.III.B.K2 · PDF page 6 · Figure/reference required

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22Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
  1. Pilot in command.
  2. Air Traffic Controller.
  3. Second in command.

Published code: PA.IV.B.R3b · PDF page 6

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23(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude: 5,000 ft Headwind: Calm Temperature: 101°F
  1. 445 feet.
  2. 545 feet.
  3. 495 feet.

Published code: PA.I.F.K1 · PDF page 6 · Figure/reference required

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24(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude: 5,000 ft Headwind: 8 kts Temperature: 41°F Runway: Hard surface
  1. 837 feet.
  2. 956 feet.
  3. 1,076 feet.

Published code: PA.I.F.K1 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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25(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard.
  1. 19.8 inches Hg.
  2. 20.8 inches Hg.
  3. 21.0 inches Hg.

Published code: PA.I.F.K1 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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26The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle between the
  1. chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
  2. airplane's longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil.
  3. airplane's center line and the relative wind.

Published code: PA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 7

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27When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
  1. 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.
  2. 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.
  3. 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.

Published code: PA.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 7

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28(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
  1. 1 mile and clear of clouds.
  2. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
  3. 3 miles and clear of clouds.

Published code: PA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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29(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
  1. Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
  2. Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
  3. Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.

Published code: PA.III.A.K2 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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30(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
  1. VOR.
  2. VORTAC.
  3. VOR/DME.

Published code: PA.I.E.K2 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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31(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 52.) Where is Loup City Municipal located in relation to the city?
  1. Northeast approximately 3 miles.
  2. Northwest approximately 1 mile.
  3. East approximately 7 miles.

Published code: PA.I.D.K1 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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32(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 52.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
  1. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
  2. Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.
  3. Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.

Published code: PA.I.D.K1 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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33(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 64.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
  1. A.
  2. C.
  3. E.

Published code: PA.II.D.K3 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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34A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?
  1. Taking off into the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed.
  2. Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate.
  3. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

Published code: PA.I.H.K4 · PDF page 9

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35If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
  1. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
  2. engine roughness.
  3. loss of RPM.

Published code: PA.IX.C.K1b · PDF page 9

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36(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
  1. Class C.
  2. Class E.
  3. Class G.

Published code: PA.I.E.K2 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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37While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
  1. 121.5 MHz.
  2. 122.5 MHz.
  3. 128.725 MHz.

Published code: PA.III.A.K1 · PDF page 10

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38ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock." This advisory is relative to your
  1. true course.
  2. ground track.
  3. magnetic heading.

Published code: PA.VI.B.K3 · PDF page 10

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39Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?
  1. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  2. An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the airfoil deflects air downward.
  3. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

Published code: PA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 10

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40Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
  1. a northerly turning error.
  2. certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
  3. the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.

Published code: PA.VI.A.K2 · PDF page 10

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41When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will
  1. increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
  2. assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.
  3. nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.

Published code: PA.IX.B.K4 · PDF page 10

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42How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
  1. 14.25 NM.
  2. 15.00 NM.
  3. 14.50 NM.

Published code: PA.I.D.K3a · PDF page 11

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43The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
  1. 10 NM.
  2. 20 NM.
  3. 30 NM.

Published code: PA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 11

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44(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
  1. 1,000-foot increase.
  2. 1,100-foot decrease.
  3. 1,300-foot increase.

Published code: PA.I.F.K2a · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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45The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
  1. in Class B airspace.
  2. in conditions of reduced visibility.
  3. within 15 miles of a towered airport.

Published code: PA.III.B.R1 · PDF page 11

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46When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
  1. 7200
  2. 7000
  3. 7500

Published code: PA.VI.B.K4 · PDF page 11

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47A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by
  1. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
  2. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation.
  3. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

Published code: PA.I.H.K1b · PDF page 12

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48This sign confirms your position on
  1. runway 22.
  2. routing to runway 22.
  3. taxiway 22.

Published code: PA.II.D.K3 · PDF page 12 · Figure/reference required

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49From the cockpit, this marking confirms the aircraft to be
  1. on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
  2. on a runway, about to clear.
  3. near an instrument approach clearance zone.

Published code: PA.II.D.K3 · PDF page 12 · Figure/reference required

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50(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
  1. 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.
  2. 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
  3. 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

Published code: PA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 12 · Figure/reference required

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51If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,
  1. the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information.
  2. the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
  3. GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.

Published code: PA.VI.B.K2 · PDF page 13

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52You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should
  1. provide the number of occupants on board.
  2. identify yourself as a pilot.
  3. begin with your route of flight.

Published code: PA.I.C.K1 · PDF page 13

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53Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
  1. 90 days.
  2. 60 days.
  3. 30 days.

Published code: PA.I.A.K1 · PDF page 13

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54In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?
  1. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
  2. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
  3. High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

Published code: PA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 13

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55The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
  1. stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
  2. friction between the wind and the surface.
  3. stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

Published code: PA.I.C.K3b · PDF page 13

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56Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
  1. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
  2. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds.
  3. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

Published code: PA.I.H.K1k · PDF page 14

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57When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
  1. clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
  2. good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
  3. an increase in temperature as altitude increases.

Published code: PA.I.C.K3c · PDF page 14

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58When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it
  1. produces stratus type clouds.
  2. causes showers and thunderstorms.
  3. develops convective turbulence.

Published code: PA.I.C.K3f · PDF page 14

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59Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
  1. authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
  2. person in a position of authority.
  3. local law enforcement officer.

Published code: PA.I.A.K4 · PDF page 14

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60The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is
  1. FIVE POINT FIVE.
  2. FIFTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.
  3. FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.

Published code: PA.III.A.K2 · PDF page 14

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61Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
  1. Landing at an airport with an operating control tower.
  2. Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
  3. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.

Published code: PA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 15

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Instrument Rating

IRA · 59 samples
01To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, what is the minimum instrument flight experience you must have logged during the preceding six months, in the same category of aircraft?
  1. Holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.
  2. Six hours of instrument time in any aircraft, and six instrument approaches.
  3. Six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.

Published code: IR.I.A.K1 · PDF page 2

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02A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least
  1. a type rating.
  2. a first class medical certificate.
  3. an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.

Published code: IR.I.A.K2 · PDF page 2

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03When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
  1. When operating in the Class E airspace.
  2. When operating in a Class A airspace.
  3. When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

Published code: IR.I.C.R3 · PDF page 2

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04A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
  1. The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
  2. The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
  3. The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot`s discretion.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 2

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05What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?
  1. 400 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
  2. 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
  3. 800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

Published code: IR.I.C.K1 · PDF page 3

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06If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
  1. As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
  2. As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
  3. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 3

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07MEA is an altitude which assures
  1. obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME mileage.
  2. a 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
  3. acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

Published code: IR.I.C.K2 · PDF page 3

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08When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF, it is
  1. expressed as 6PSM.
  2. expressed as P6SM.
  3. omitted from the report.

Published code: IR.I.B.K2 · PDF page 3

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09In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?
  1. Coastal areas.
  2. Mountain slopes.
  3. Level inland areas.

Published code: IR.I.B.K3j · PDF page 3

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10The use of airborne weather-avoidance radar
  1. provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
  2. assures the avoidance of hail.
  3. allows you to fly safely between echoes.

Published code: IR.I.B.K4 · PDF page 4

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11(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 7.) What type of weather can be expected in the red scalloped area near area 9?
  1. 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 330.
  2. 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51,000 feet MSL.
  3. Isolated embedded cumulonimbus with tops to FL330.

Published code: IR.I.B.K2 · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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12(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
  1. Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
  2. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
  3. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

Published code: IR.I.B.K3h · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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13Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet. FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000 OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558
  1. Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.
  2. Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58 °C.
  3. Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58 °C.

Published code: IR.I.C.K2 · PDF page 4

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14When does the National Weather Service release an Aviation Notification Watch Message (SAW)?
  1. At 0000 (UTC).
  2. 0000 and 1200 (UTC).
  3. Unscheduled and issued as required.

Published code: IR.I.B.K1 · PDF page 4

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15Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA. METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAESNB42
  1. The wind is variable from 290° to 360°.
  2. Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.
  3. Rain ended 42 minutes past the hour, snow began 42 minutes past the hour.

Published code: IR.I.C.K2 · PDF page 5

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16If your transponder is inoperative, what are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?
  1. The entry into Class D is prohibited.
  2. Continue the flight as planned.
  3. Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.

Published code: IR.II.C.K3 · PDF page 5

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17Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
  1. MALSR.
  2. HIRL.
  3. REIL.

Published code: IR.VI.E.K2 · PDF page 5

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18(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 136.) An `on glidepath` indication is
  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 11

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19The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at
  1. high altitudes far from the VORTAC.
  2. high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
  3. low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

Published code: IR.II.B.K2a · PDF page 5

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20When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?
  1. Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
  2. Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.
  3. Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.

Published code: IR.II.B.K2a · PDF page 6

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21During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure
  1. before entering the clouds.
  2. when the tower instructs the change.
  3. upon reaching traffic pattern altitude.

Published code: IR.III.A.K1 · PDF page 6

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22While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
  1. ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
  2. average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
  3. ground speed changes by 10 MPH or more.

Published code: IR.III.A.K1 · PDF page 6

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23You may cancel an IFR flight plan
  1. at any time as long as you advise ATC.
  2. only in an emergency.
  3. if in VMC outside class A airspace.

Published code: IR.I.C.K5 · PDF page 6

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24ATC has approved your request for VFR-on-top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you
  1. should set your transponder to code 1200.
  2. must fly appropriate IFR altitudes.
  3. must fly appropriate VFR altitudes.

Published code: IR.I.C.K2 · PDF page 6

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25If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
  1. The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.
  2. The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
  3. The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

Published code: IR.IV.A.K3 · PDF page 7

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26You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
  1. turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
  2. continue as assigned and query ATC.
  3. turn inbound and join the final approach course.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 7

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27How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
  1. All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view.
  2. Any fix depicted that is located on the final approach course.
  3. Any fix depicted that is located on the final approach course prior to the final approach fix.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 7

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28While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
  1. Continue as directed.
  2. Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.
  3. Deviate as needed; then rejoin the approach.

Published code: IR.III.A.K1 · PDF page 7

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29ATC can issue a STAR
  1. to all pilots wherever STARs are available.
  2. only if the pilot requests a STAR in the `Remarks` section of the flight plan.
  3. when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests `No STAR.`

Published code: IR.III.A.K1 · PDF page 8

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30Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?
  1. The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
  2. The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
  3. The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

Published code: IR.III.A.K1 · PDF page 8

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31You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDS should be
  1. 40 NM.
  2. 70 NM.
  3. 80 NM.

Published code: IR.I.C.K2 · PDF page 8

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32If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means
  1. a procedure turn is not authorized.
  2. you should fly a teardrop entry.
  3. a racetrack-type turn is required.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 8

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33(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 227.) Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The PFAF (Precision Final Approach Fix) intercept altitude is
  1. 7,080 feet MSL.
  2. 7,977 feet MSL.
  3. 8,000 feet MSL.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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34(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 230.) The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?
  1. DEANI intersection.
  2. WHITE CLOUD VOR/DME.
  3. MAJUB intersection.

Published code: IR.V.B.K1 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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35When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
  1. The first movement of the CDI as the aircraft enters the zone of confusion.
  2. The moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank.
  3. The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.

Published code: IR.II.B.K2a · PDF page 9

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36(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 91.) When flying a northbound IFR flight on V257, what is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC?
  1. 7,500 feet.
  2. 8,600 feet.
  3. 11,100 feet.

Published code: IR.V.A.K1 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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37(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figures 61.) Determine your position relative to the glide slope and localizer course.
  1. Below the glide slope and right of the localizer course.
  2. Above the glide slope and left of the localizer course.
  3. Above the glide slope and right of the localizer course.

Published code: IR.V.A.K1 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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38(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 24.) While passing near the CORTEZ VOR, southbound on V187, contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on
  1. 118.575 MHz.
  2. 108.4 MHz.
  3. 122.3 MHz.

Published code: IR.VII.A.K1 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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39(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figures 174 and 175.) When DFW is landing to the north, at CURLE, expect
  1. to be instructed to maintain 200 knots.
  2. to fly a course of 010°.
  3. radar vectors.

Published code: IR.V.B.K1 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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40Military training routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet are depicted on
  1. IFR Planning Charts.
  2. IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts.
  3. IFR High Altitude En Route Charts.

Published code: IR.I.C.K1 · PDF page 10

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41If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should
  1. continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF.
  2. use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach.
  3. continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.

Published code: IR.VI.A.K1 · PDF page 10

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42What is the rule for a pilot receiving a "Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?"
  1. The pilot is required to accept the controller`s clearance in visual meteorological conditions.
  2. The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the stopping distance is adequate.
  3. The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

Published code: IR.V.B.R1 · PDF page 11

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43A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) approach may require
  1. simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.
  2. special training to monitor two ILS receivers simultaneously.
  3. tracking performance parameters at the decision point.

Published code: IR.VI.B.K1 · PDF page 11

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44(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 254.) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
  1. Top red.
  2. Middle yellow.
  3. Bottom yellow.

Published code: IR.VI.E.K2 · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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45If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis you may have symptoms of
  1. hypoxia.
  2. hyperventilation.
  3. carbon monoxide poisoning.

Published code: IR.IV.A.R1 · PDF page 11

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46If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will
  1. increase during a climb.
  2. decrease during a climb.
  3. remain constant regardless of altitude change.

Published code: IR.IV.A.K3 · PDF page 11

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47(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 242 and Legend 27.) You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a groundspeed of 105 knots, what is the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?
  1. 2.82 degrees and 524 feet per minute.
  2. 3.00 degrees and 557 feet per minute.
  3. 4.00 degrees and 550 feet per nautical mile.

Published code: IR.VI.A.K1 · PDF page 12 · Figure/reference required

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48If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?
  1. Light, moderate, severe, extreme.
  2. Trace, light, moderate, severe.
  3. Few, light, moderate, severe.

Published code: IR.I.B.K3i · PDF page 12

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49On initial climb-out after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect
  1. ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.
  2. the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working.
  3. the increased airflow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.

Published code: IR.I.B.K3i · PDF page 12

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50What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?
  1. The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.
  2. The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.
  3. The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

Published code: IR.I.A.K2 · PDF page 12

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51A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
  1. keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
  2. periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the aircraft.
  3. periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.

Published code: IR.II.B.K2b · PDF page 13

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52An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can
  1. compensate for an airman`s lack of skill or knowledge.
  2. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
  3. improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts

Published code: IR.II.B.R1 · PDF page 13

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53The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to
  1. complacency.
  2. fatigue.
  3. resignation.

Published code: IR.II.B.R1 · PDF page 13

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54(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 162.) You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
  1. you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.
  2. you are too low on the approach.
  3. you have lined up with the wrong runway.

Published code: IR.III.A.K1 · PDF page 13 · Figure/reference required

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55Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of
  1. 500 feet per minute.
  2. 400 feet per nautical mile.
  3. 200 feet per nautical mile.

Published code: IR.V.B.K1 · PDF page 13

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56(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 187.) When conducting a missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering?
  1. 2,100 feet MSL.
  2. 4,000 feet MSL.
  3. 5,800 feet MSL.

Published code: IR.VI.A.K1 · PDF page 14 · Figure/reference required

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57(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3F, Figure 158.) With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner`s vortices?
  1. The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.
  2. The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
  3. The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

Published code: IR.IV.B.R1 · PDF page 14 · Figure/reference required

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58The instrument approach criteria for a Category A aircraft is based on a maximum airspeed of
  1. 100 knots.
  2. 90 knots.
  3. 80 knots.

Published code: IR.VI.A.K1 · PDF page 14

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59Consider this AIRMET that includes your route of flight: DFWS WA 211445 AIRMET IFR . . . OK TX FROM END TO TXK TO HOU TO LBB TO END CIG BELOW 010. CONDS ENDG 15-18Z This indicates
  1. there will be icing in clouds below 10,000 feet MSL.
  2. visibility will be less than 3 SM until 15Z.
  3. the area will have low ceilings before 15Z.

Published code: IR.I.B.K2 · PDF page 14

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Commercial Pilot

CAX · 50 samples
01When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to
  1. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic.
  2. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.
  3. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial.

Published code: CA.VI.A.R1 · PDF page 2

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02An airplane is converging with a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
  1. The aircraft on the left.
  2. The aircraft on the right.
  3. The faster of the two aircraft.

Published code: CA.III.B.K3 · PDF page 2

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03Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?
  1. 3 NM.
  2. 5 SM.
  3. 1 SM.

Published code: CA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 2

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04You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must
  1. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
  2. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
  3. obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight.

Published code: CA.I.C.K3 · PDF page 2

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05What are the characteristics of an unstable atmosphere?
  1. A cool, dry air mass.
  2. A warm, humid air mass.
  3. Descending air in the northern hemisphere.

Published code: CA.I.C.K3a · PDF page 3

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06(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 38.) Given the following information, does the weight of the aircraft and center of gravity fall within allowable limits? Empty Weight (oil is included) = 1,275 lb Empty Weight moment (in-lb/1,000) = 102.05 Pilot and copilot = 390 lb Rear seat passenger = 145 lb Cargo = 95 lb Fuel = 35 gallons
  1. Yes, the weight and center of gravity is within allowable limits.
  2. No, the weight exceeds the maximum allowable.
  3. No, the weight is acceptable, but the center of gravity is aft of the allowable limits.

Published code: CA.I.F.K2f · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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07(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 52, Area 8.) The traffic pattern altitude at the Auburn (AUN) airport is 1,000 feet AGL. May you practice landings under VFR when the AWOS is reporting a ground visibility of 2 miles?
  1. Yes, you will be operating in a combination of Class E and G airspace.
  2. No, the reported ground visibility must be at least 3 miles.
  3. No, the Class E airspace extends to the airport surface.

Published code: CA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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08Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
  1. The radar scope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
  2. The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
  3. The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

Published code: CA.I.C.K4 · PDF page 3

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09Your aircraft has an exhaust manifold type heating system. The exhaust manifold is periodically inspected to avoid
  1. carbon monoxide poisoning.
  2. overheating in the cockpit.
  3. extremely cold temperatures in the cabin.

Published code: CA.I.G.K1i · PDF page 4

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10When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what could a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions?
  1. Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the gear to air-dry.
  2. Immediately retract the landing gear so it can be heated in the gear wells.
  3. Fly at a speed above the green arc of the airspeed indicator to remove the snow and slush.

Published code: CA.I.G.K1d · PDF page 4

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11(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 11.) What would be the approximate true airspeed and fuel consumption per hour at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power?
  1. 103 MPH TAS, 6.3 GPH.
  2. 105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH.
  3. 105 MPH TAS, 6.6 GPH.

Published code: CA.I.D.K3a · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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12What should be expected when making a downwind landing? The likelihood of
  1. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster airspeed at touchdown.
  2. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.
  3. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.

Published code: CA.IV.B.K2 · PDF page 4

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13When transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a constant airspeed climb, the angle of attack and lift
  1. are increased and remain at a higher lift-to-weight ratio to maintain the climb.
  2. remain the same and maintain a steady state lift-to-weight ratio during the climb.
  3. are momentarily increased and lift returns to a steady state during the climb.

Published code: CA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 4

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14If you experience an engine failure in a single-engine aircraft after takeoff, you should
  1. establish the proper glide attitude.
  2. turn into the wind.
  3. adjust the pitch to maintain VY.

Published code: CA.IV.A.R3b · PDF page 5

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15You are acting as a commercial pilot, but are not operating under the regulations of 14 CFR part 119. Which of these operations are you authorized to conduct?
  1. On-demand, passenger carrying flights of nine persons or less.
  2. Aerial application and aerial photography.
  3. On-demand cargo flights.

Published code: CA.I.A.K2 · PDF page 5

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16(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 61.) Ground control has instructed you to taxi Alpha to Foxtrot to the active runway. According to the sign in the figure, which direction would you turn at this intersection to comply with ATC?
  1. No turn is required.
  2. The turn will be made to the right.
  3. The turn will be made to the left.

Published code: CA.II.D.K3 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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17While executing a 60° level turn, your aircraft is at a load factor of 2.0. What does this mean?
  1. The total load on the aircraft`s structure is two times its weight.
  2. The load factor is over the load limit.
  3. The gust factor is two times the total load limit.

Published code: CA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 5

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18What could be one result of exceeding critical Mach number?
  1. Propeller stall.
  2. Reduction in drag.
  3. Aircraft control difficulties.

Published code: CA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 5

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19What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?
  1. All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume.
  2. ATC may offer a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.
  3. Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume.

Published code: CA.IV.B.R3b · PDF page 6

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20You attended a party last night and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is
  1. below .04%.
  2. below .08%.
  3. 0.0%.

Published code: CA.I.H.K2 · PDF page 6

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21You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may
  1. depart if you get a special flight permit.
  2. depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements.
  3. not depart until a new inspection is conducted.

Published code: CA.I.B.K1b · PDF page 6

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22What significant cloud coverage is reported by this pilot report? KMOB UA/OV 15NW MOB 1340Z/SK 025 OVC 045/075 OVC 080/090 OVC
  1. Three (3) separate overcast layers exist with bases at 2,500, 7,500 and 9,000 feet.
  2. The top of the lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer are 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively.
  3. The base of the second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 9,000 feet.

Published code: CA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 6

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23Given the following METAR: KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM BKN025 OVC040 13/11 A2998, what is the maximum altitude to maintain VFR below the ceiling in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
  1. 2,000 feet AGL.
  2. 3,500 feet AGL.
  3. 3,900 feet AGL.

Published code: CA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 7

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24You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?
  1. You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.
  2. You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions.
  3. You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.

Published code: CA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 7

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25You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles from the cell however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?
  1. No, you are at a safe distance from the cell.
  2. Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.
  3. Yes, this is still in the area of dissipation.

Published code: CA.I.C.K3h · PDF page 7

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26(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 32.) What is the total takeoff distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle with the following conditions. Temperature: 50 °F Pressure altitude: 4,000 feet Weight: 3,200 lbs. Headwind: 15 kts.
  1. 1,200 feet.
  2. 880 feet.
  3. 700 feet.

Published code: CA.I.F.K1 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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27You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"
  1. Call the Automated Flight Service Station.
  2. In the Chart Supplements U.S.
  3. In the NOTAMs during your preflight briefing.

Published code: CA.II.D.K1 · PDF page 8

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28(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 53, Area 4.) You plan to depart on a day VFR flight from the Firebaugh (F34) airport. What is the floor of controlled airspace above this airport?
  1. 1,200 feet above the airport.
  2. 700 feet above the airport.
  3. 1,500 feet above the airport.

Published code: CA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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29You are most likely to experience somatogravic illusion during
  1. a rapid descent.
  2. deceleration upon landing.
  3. rapid acceleration on takeoff.

Published code: CA.I.H.K1d · PDF page 8

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30What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
  1. All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation.
  2. Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver.
  3. Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

Published code: CA.I.E.K3 · PDF page 8

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31(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 53, Area 2.) What is indicated by the star next to the "L" in the airport information box for the MADERA (MAE) airport north of area 2?
  1. Special VFR is prohibited.
  2. There is a rotating beacon at the field.
  3. Lighting limitations exist.

Published code: CA.I.E.K2 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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32(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 54, Area 3.) What is the significance of R-2531? This is a restricted area
  1. for IFR aircraft.
  2. where aircraft may never operate.
  3. where often invisible hazards exist.

Published code: CA.I.E.K3 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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33(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 53.) You are planning a VFR west bound flight departing the FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport and you will be passing through the active Lemoore C and A MOAs. What action should you take?
  1. Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA.
  2. Avoid the MOA, VFR, and IFR flights are prohibited during day light hours.
  3. Contact the aircraft operating in the MOA on the Guard frequency of 121.5.

Published code: CA.I.E.K3 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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34As a commercial pilot, you decide to start a small business flying non-stop tours to look at Christmas lights during the holiday season. What authorizations, if any, are required to conduct Christmas light tours?
  1. No authorizations or approvals are required if you hold the appropriate category and class rating for the aircraft that will be flown.
  2. You must apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from a Flight Standards District Office.
  3. You must apply to the FAA to receive an exemption to carry passengers at night within a 50 mile radius of your departure airport.

Published code: CA.I.A.K2 · PDF page 9

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35You are PIC of a flight and determine that the aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the following is an appropriate decision?
  1. No maintenance is available so you wait until after the trip to comply with the AD.
  2. You make the flight because you can overfly an AD by 10 hours.
  3. You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance.

Published code: CA.I.B.K1c · PDF page 9

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36Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly
  1. at the same altitude as the large aircraft.
  2. below the altitude of the large aircraft.
  3. above the flight path of the large aircraft.

Published code: CA.IV.A.R2d · PDF page 10

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37To act as PIC of a high performance airplane, which training or experience would meet the additional requirements?
  1. Logged at least five hours as SIC in a high performance or turbine-powered airplane in the last 12 calendar months.
  2. Received and logged ground and flight training in an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller.
  3. Received and logged ground and flight training in a high performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement.

Published code: CA.I.A.K1 · PDF page 10

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38You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes?
  1. Multi or single-engine land.
  2. Single-engine land airplane.
  3. Multi-engine land airplane.

Published code: CA.I.A.K1 · PDF page 10

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39There is a high pressure system that is located south of your planned route in the Northern Hemisphere on a west to east cross-country flight. To take advantage of favorable winds, you would plan your route
  1. on the north side of the high pressure area.
  2. on the south side of the high pressure area.
  3. through the middle of the high pressure area.

Published code: CA.I.D.K2 · PDF page 10

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40In the following METAR/TAF for HOU, what is the ceiling and visibility forecast on the 7th day of the month at 0600Z? KHOU 061734Z 0618/0718 16014G22KT P6SM VCSH BKN018 BKN035 FM070100 17010KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 FM070500 17008KT 4SM BR SCT008 OVC012 FM071000 18005KT 3SM BR OVC007 FM071500 23008KT 5SM BR VCSH SCT008 OVC015
  1. Visibility 6 miles with a broken ceiling at 15,000 feet MSL.
  2. 4 nautical miles of visibility and an overcast ceiling at 700 feet MSL.
  3. 4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL.

Published code: CA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 11

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41You have delayed your flight to allow a fast moving cold front to clear your destination airport before your arrival. What type of flying conditions would you expect after the front has passed?
  1. A fast moving squall line with high winds and thunderstorms.
  2. Clear skies with gusty, turbulent winds and cooler temperatures.
  3. Low clouds, reduced visibility and showery, misty conditions.

Published code: CA.I.C.K3e · PDF page 11

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42What is a consideration when using a hand-held GPS for VFR navigation?
  1. Position accuracy may degrade without notification.
  2. RAIM capability will be maintained for entire flight.
  3. Waypoints will still be accurate even if database is not current.

Published code: CA.VI.B.K2 · PDF page 11

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43What procedure could a pilot use to navigate under VFR from one point to another when ground references are not visible?
  1. Dead reckoning.
  2. Pilotage.
  3. VFR is not allowed in these circumstances.

Published code: CA.VI.A.K1 · PDF page 11

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44(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-1E, Figure 52, Area 2.) When departing the RIO LINDA (L36) airport to the northwest at an altitude of 1,000 feet, AGL, you
  1. must make contact with MC CLELLAN (MCC) control tower as soon as practical after takeoff.
  2. are not required to contact any ATC facilities if you do not enter the Class C Airspace
  3. must make contact with the SACRAMENTO INTL (SMF) control tower immediately after takeoff.

Published code: CA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 12 · Figure/reference required

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45You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?
  1. ADS-B in capability.
  2. Airspeed indicator.
  3. Attitude indicator.

Published code: CA.IX.C.K2d · PDF page 12

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46When conducting a go-around, the pilot must be aware that
  1. radio communications are key to alerting other aircraft in the pattern that a goaround maneuver is being conducted.
  2. the airplane is trimmed for a power-off condition, and application of takeoff power will cause the nose to rise rapidly.
  3. flaps should be raised as quickly as possible to reduce drag and increase airspeed for a successful go-around.

Published code: CA.IV.B.R3a · PDF page 12

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47On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you
  1. must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.
  2. should notify the NTSB within 10 days.
  3. must file a NASA report immediately.

Published code: CA.III.A.K8 · PDF page 12

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48Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air at speeds above
  1. VNO.
  2. VA.
  3. VNE.

Published code: CA.I.F.R2 · PDF page 13

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49As air temperature increases, density altitude will
  1. decrease.
  2. increase.
  3. remain the same.

Published code: CA.I.C.K3c · PDF page 13

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50Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed?
  1. Within Class E airspace below the upper shelf of Class C Airspace.
  2. Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class D airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL.
  3. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

Published code: CA.I.E.K1 · PDF page 13

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Flight Instructor

FIA · 100 samples
01Most midair collision accidents occur during
  1. hazy days within the traffic pattern environment.
  2. clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids.
  3. night conditions during simulated instrument flight.

Published code: PLT195 · PDF page 2

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02The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
  1. turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
  2. avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.
  3. avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.

Published code: PLT194 · PDF page 2

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03What is the correct departure procedure at a non-towered airport?
  1. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.
  2. Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg.
  3. Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

Published code: PLT052 · PDF page 2

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04Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
  1. Under no condition.
  2. Only if a second pilot is aboard.
  3. Only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency.

Published code: PLT463 · PDF page 2

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05When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
  1. When flying over water beyond gliding distance to the shore.
  2. When practicing spins or other flight maneuvers for any certificate or rating.
  3. When an intentional maneuver that exceeds 30° noseup or nosedown relative to the horizon is made.

Published code: PLT404 · PDF page 3

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06An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
  1. July 13, next year.
  2. July 31, next year.
  3. 12 calendar months after the date shown on the Airworthiness Certificate.

Published code: PLT372 · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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07How often are emergency locator transmitters required to be inspected?
  1. Every 12 months.
  2. Every 24 months.
  3. After every 100 hours of flight time.

Published code: PLT404 · PDF page 3

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08Position lights are required to be displayed on all aircraft in flight from
  1. sunset to sunrise.
  2. 1 hour before sunset to 1 hour after sunrise.
  3. 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset.

Published code: PLT461 · PDF page 3

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09If an aircraft is not equipped for night flight and official sunset is 1730 EST, the latest a pilot may operate that aircraft without violating regulations is
  1. 1629 EST.
  2. 1729 EST.
  3. 1829 EST.

Published code: PLT220 · PDF page 3

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10What is V2 speed?
  1. Takeoff decision speed.
  2. Takeoff safety speed.
  3. Minimum takeoff speed.

Published code: PLT132 · PDF page 4

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11To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to airplanes, an applicant is required to be at least how old?
  1. 14 years.
  2. 16 years.
  3. 17 years.

Published code: PLT457 · PDF page 4

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12The minimum age requirement for the applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot Certificate limited to glider operations is
  1. 14 years.
  2. 16 years.
  3. 17 years.

Published code: PLT457 · PDF page 4

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13As pilot, what is the minimum flight time in an aircraft an applicant must have for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
  1. 250 hours.
  2. 200 hours.
  3. 150 hours.

Published code: PLT451 · PDF page 4

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14What night flight training is required for an unrestricted Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
  1. 3 hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10 landings and one cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles.
  2. 3 hours to include five takeoffs and five landings (each landing from a traffic pattern).
  3. 1 hour to include three takeoffs and three landings.

Published code: PLT407 · PDF page 4

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15What is the minimum age required to be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate?
  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 21

Published code: PLT448 · PDF page 5

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16Regarding Convective Outlook Charts, when well-organized severe thunderstorms are expected, but in small numbers and/or low coverage, the risk is referred to as
  1. SLGT.
  2. POSSIBLE.
  3. MDT.

Published code: PLT051 · PDF page 5

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17(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 7.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
  1. 230° true at 32 knots.
  2. 230° true at 25 knots.
  3. 230° magnetic at 25 knots.

Published code: PLT076 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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18Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing?
  1. PIREP.
  2. SIGMET.
  3. CONVECTIVE SIGMET.

Published code: PLT290 · PDF page 5

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19(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 3.) What is the reported duration of the rain at the time of the observation at KBRO?
  1. 25 minutes.
  2. 6 minutes.
  3. 19 minutes.

Published code: PLT059 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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20In the following TAF for KMCO, what does `SHRA` stand for? KMCO 021136Z 0212/0312 22005KT P6SM VCSH FEW026 FEW045 SCT180 TEMPO 0212/0214 3SM SHRA BKN020 OVC040 FM021400 27009KT P6SM VCTS SCT020CB BKN035 OVC050 TEMPO 0214/0217 2SM TSRA BKN015CB OVC030 FM021800 34009KT P6SM SCT025 BKN060 FM022100 04010KT P6SM SCT040 BKN080 FM030000 09008KT P6SM SCT040 BKN120
  1. Rain showers.
  2. A shift in wind direction is expected.
  3. A significant change in precipitation is possible.

Published code: PLT072 · PDF page 6

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21What is the maximum weight that could be added at Station 150.0 without exceeding the aft CG limit? Aircraft weight: 5,000 lb CG location: Station 80.0 Aft CG limit: Station 80.5
  1. 70.0 pounds.
  2. 69.5 pounds.
  3. 35.9 pounds.

Published code: PLT021 · PDF page 6

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22The objective of the Airmen Certification Standards (ACS) is to ensure the certification of pilots at a high level of performance and proficiency, consistent with
  1. safety.
  2. the time available.
  3. their abilities.

Published code: PLT481 · PDF page 6

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23Proper oral quizzing by the instructor during a lesson can have which result?
  1. Alerts the instructor to the level of student motivation.
  2. Identifies points which need more emphasis.
  3. Can serve as a lead-in to introduce new material.

Published code: PLT482 · PDF page 6

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24What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
  1. Two-way communications.
  2. Two-way communications and transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
  3. Two-way communications, transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability, and VOR.

Published code: PLT161 · PDF page 7

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25(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 45.) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at
  1. the surface.
  2. 700 feet AGL.
  3. 1,200 feet MSL.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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26Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
  1. filed an IFR flight plan.
  2. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
  3. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

Published code: PLT393 · PDF page 7

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27(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 46.) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)?
  1. 2,500 feet AGL.
  2. 4,000 feet MSL.
  3. 6,000 feet MSL.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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28(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 46.) What is the height of the Class D airspace over Livermore Airport (area 5)?
  1. 2,900 feet MSL.
  2. 3,000 feet AGL.
  3. Base of the overlying Class B airspace.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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29A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates
  1. 1,000 feet of runway remaining.
  2. 3,000 feet of runway remaining
  3. the beginning of the runway overrun area.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 8

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30The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?
  1. 4 NM.
  2. 6 NM.
  3. 10 NM.

Published code: PLT147 · PDF page 8

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31Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within
  1. Class B airspace.
  2. 10 miles of any airport.
  3. 5 miles of a controlled airport.

Published code: PLT119 · PDF page 8

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32An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?
  1. 5 clicks.
  2. 3 clicks.
  3. None, the MIRL is left on all night.

Published code: PLT145 · PDF page 8

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33A military airfield can be identified by
  1. a white and red rotating beacon.
  2. white flashing sequence lights (strobes).
  3. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 8

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34What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
  1. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
  2. Holds aircraft short of the runway.
  3. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 9

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35An illusion, that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is, is produced by
  1. atmospheric haze.
  2. upsloping terrain.
  3. downsloping terrain.

Published code: PLT280 · PDF page 9

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36A rapid acceleration can create the illusion of being in a
  1. left turn.
  2. noseup attitude.
  3. nosedown attitude.

Published code: PLT334 · PDF page 9

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37One aid in increasing night vision effectiveness would be to
  1. look directly at objects.
  2. force the eyes to view off center.
  3. increase intensity of interior lighting.

Published code: PLT333 · PDF page 9

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38Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recommended for use when flying at night above
  1. 5,000 feet.
  2. 10,000 feet.
  3. 12,500 feet.

Published code: PLT438 · PDF page 9

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39What physical change would most likely occur to occupants of an unpressurized aircraft flying above 15,000 feet without supplemental oxygen?
  1. Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the bloodstream.
  2. The pressure in the middle ear becomes less than the atmospheric pressure in the cabin.
  3. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision.

Published code: PLT096 · PDF page 10

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40(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 29.) What is the approximate glide distance? Height above terrain: 5,500 ft Tailwind: 10 kts
  1. 11 miles.
  2. 12 miles.
  3. 13 miles.

Published code: PLT006 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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41In a twin-engine airplane, the single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which VYSE will produce
  1. 50 feet per minute rate of climb.
  2. 100 feet per minute rate of climb.
  3. 500 feet per minute rate of climb.

Published code: PLT132 · PDF page 10

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42How does increased weight affect the takeoff distance of an airplane?
  1. The airplane will accelerate more slowly with the same power output, but the same airspeed is required to generate necessary lift for takeoff.
  2. The airplane will accelerate more slowly with the same power output, and a higher airspeed is required to generate necessary lift for takeoff.
  3. Every airplane has the same acceleration factor with the same power output, but a higher airspeed is needed to overcome the increased ground effect.

Published code: PLT134 · PDF page 10

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43(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 17.) The airspeed indicated by point A is
  1. maneuvering speed.
  2. normal stall speed.
  3. maximum structural cruising speed.

Published code: PLT074 · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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44Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
  1. Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
  2. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
  3. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

Published code: PLT022 · PDF page 11

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45Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
  1. Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
  2. Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
  3. Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.

Published code: PLT103 · PDF page 11

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46In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
  1. Making a rational judgment.
  2. Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
  3. Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.

Published code: PLT022 · PDF page 11

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47The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the
  1. angle of incidence of the wing.
  2. amount of airflow above and below the wing.
  3. distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing.

Published code: PLT168 · PDF page 11

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48Aileron deflection moves the airplane about its
  1. lateral axis.
  2. longitudinal axis.
  3. vertical axis.

Published code: PLT095 · PDF page 12

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49Action of the elevators moves the plane on its
  1. lateral axis.
  2. longitudinal axis.
  3. vertical axis.

Published code: PLT095 · PDF page 12

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50(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 21.) Of aircraft 1, 2 , or 3, which has the lowest aspect ratio?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3

Published code: PLT238 · PDF page 12 · Figure/reference required

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51If fuel consumption is 15.3 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required for an aircraft to travel 620 NM?
  1. 63 gallons.
  2. 60 gallons.
  3. 57 gallons.

Published code: PLT015 · PDF page 12

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52How far will an aircraft travel in 3-1/2 minutes if its groundspeed is 65 knots?
  1. 3.3 NM.
  2. 3.8 NM.
  3. 2.2 NM.

Published code: PLT012 · PDF page 12

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53On a cross-country flight, point X is crossed at 1015 local. What is your expected arrival time at point Y? Use the following information to determine your ETA. Distance between X and Y: 32 NM Forecast wind: 240° at 25 kts Pressure altitude: 5,500 ft Ambient temperature: +05 °C True course: 100° The indicated airspeed is 110 knots.
  1. 1040 local.
  2. 1059 local.
  3. 1029 local.

Published code: PLT012 · PDF page 13

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54If an aircraft is consuming 91 pounds of fuel per hour and groundspeed is 168 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 457 NM?
  1. 291 pounds.
  2. 265 pounds.
  3. 248 pounds.

Published code: PLT012 · PDF page 13

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55The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
  1. magnetic deviation.
  2. magnetic variation.
  3. compass acceleration error.

Published code: PLT320 · PDF page 13

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56If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
  1. 019° and 12 knots.
  2. 200° and 13 knots.
  3. 246° and 13 knots.

Published code: PLT012 · PDF page 13

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57Which distance is commonly displayed by a DME indicator?
  1. Slant-range distance in statute miles.
  2. Slant-range distance in nautical miles.
  3. The distance from the aircraft to a point at the same altitude directly above the VORTAC.

Published code: PLT202 · PDF page 14

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58Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 1.3.

Published code: PLT202 · PDF page 14

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59(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 44.) An aircraft takes off from Hicks Airport (area 1) and flies northeast towards Northwest Airport (area 2). What maximum altitude could be flown to remain under the class B airspace?
  1. 4,000 feet MSL.
  2. 2,500 feet MSL.
  3. 3,200 feet MSL.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 14 · Figure/reference required

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60Which statement is true concerning the operation of DME?
  1. DME operates in the VHF frequency band.
  2. Distance information received from DME is the actual horizontal distance from the station.
  3. DME coded identification is transmitted once for each three or four times that the VOR coded identification is transmitted.

Published code: PLT202 · PDF page 14

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61To properly compensate for a crosswind during straight-and-level cruising flight, the pilot should
  1. hold rudder pressure toward the wind.
  2. establish a proper heading into the wind by coordinated use of the controls.
  3. hold aileron pressure toward the wind and hold opposite rudder pressure to prevent a turn.

Published code: PLT112 · PDF page 15

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62When explaining the techniques used for making short- and soft-field takeoffs, it would be correct to state that
  1. during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made as soon as possible.
  2. during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made only when best angle-of-climb speed is attained.
  3. during short-field takeoffs, lift-off should be attempted only after best rate-ofclimb speed is attained.

Published code: PLT486 · PDF page 15

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63What will cause the nose of an aircraft to move in the direction of the turn before the bank starts in a turn entry?
  1. Rudder being applied too late.
  2. Rudder being applied too soon.
  3. Failure to apply back elevator pressure.

Published code: PLT219 · PDF page 15

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64What normally results from excessive airspeed on final approach?
  1. Bouncing.
  2. Floating.
  3. Ballooning.

Published code: PLT170 · PDF page 15

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65A go-around from a poor landing approach should
  1. not be attempted unless circumstances make it absolutely necessary.
  2. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing.
  3. not be attempted after the landing flare has been initiated regardless of airspeed.

Published code: PLT170 · PDF page 15

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66The 'No Entry' sign identifies
  1. paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
  2. an area that does not continue beyond intersection.
  3. the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 16

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67The 'ILS critical area boundary sign' identifies
  1. the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
  2. the edge of the ILS critical area.
  3. the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 16

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68What is true altitude?
  1. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
  2. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
  3. The height above the standard datum plane.

Published code: PLT023 · PDF page 16

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69(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 36. Chart moments are divided by 100.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?
  1. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG moves aft.
  2. Weight is reduced by 270 pounds and the CG is unaffected.
  3. Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward.

Published code: PLT021 · PDF page 16 · Figure/reference required

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70During preflight, the fuel vent system should always be checked
  1. to ensure the vent is closed.
  2. to ensure the vent is open.
  3. to ensure the vent system pressure is in the green range.

Published code: PLT253 · PDF page 16

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71During flight, advancing thrust will
  1. increase airspeed.
  2. cause the aircraft to climb.
  3. cause the aircraft to increase airspeed and climb.

Published code: PLT125 · PDF page 17

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72(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 100 knots?
  1. 115 knots.
  2. 129 knots.
  3. 140 knots.

Published code: PLT018 · PDF page 17 · Figure/reference required

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73With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner`s manual for computing gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the original equipment, the
  1. allowable useful load is decreased.
  2. allowable useful load remains unchanged.
  3. maximum allowable gross weight is increased.

Published code: PLT328 · PDF page 17

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74What can a pilot expect when landing at an airport located in the mountains?
  1. Higher true airspeed and longer landing distance.
  2. Higher indicated airspeed and shorter landing distance.
  3. Lower true airspeed and longer landing distance.

Published code: PLT127 · PDF page 17

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75Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the
  1. wingspan to the wing root.
  2. wingspan to the mean chord.
  3. square of the chord to the wingspan.

Published code: PLT238 · PDF page 17

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76(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 30.) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 25 knots?
  1. 16 knots.
  2. 19 knots.
  3. 22 knots.

Published code: PLT013 · PDF page 18 · Figure/reference required

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77What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
  1. It increases engine performance.
  2. It reduces climb performance.
  3. It increases takeoff performance.

Published code: PLT127 · PDF page 18

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78When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
  1. 0700, 1700, 7000.
  2. 1200, 1500, 7000.
  3. 7500, 7600, 7700.

Published code: PLT497 · PDF page 18

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79Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
  1. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
  2. When at sea level under standard conditions.
  3. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

Published code: PLT023 · PDF page 18

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80What is pressure altitude?
  1. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
  2. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
  3. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

Published code: PLT023 · PDF page 18

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81To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
  1. fuel strainer drain.
  2. lowest point in the fuel system.
  3. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

Published code: PLT253 · PDF page 19

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82(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 45.) What is the elevation of the Thomas Airport (T69) (area 5)?
  1. 122 feet MSL.
  2. 43 feet MSL.
  3. 48 feet MSL.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 19 · Figure/reference required

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83Public figures are protected by
  1. special use airspace.
  2. prohibited areas.
  3. temporary flight restriction.

Published code: PLT376 · PDF page 19 · Figure/reference required

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84When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,
  1. interpolate the data and attempt takeoff.
  2. extrapolate the data and attempt takeoff.
  3. do not attempt takeoff until conditions permit calculations to provide the data to determine a safe takeoff and climb out.

Published code: PLT373 · PDF page 19

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85A slightly below glidepath indication on a 2-bar VASI glidepath is indicated by
  1. two red lights over two white lights.
  2. two white lights over two red lights.
  3. two red lights over two more red lights.

Published code: PLT147 · PDF page 19

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86You may anticipate fog when the temperature-dew point spread is
  1. 15°F or less and decreasing.
  2. 15°F or more and increasing.
  3. 5°F or less and decreasing.

Published code: PLT344 · PDF page 20

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87Your student holds a private pilot certificate with an airplane rating and wishes to obtain a rotorcraft category rating. You inform the student that
  1. none of the training/flight experience obtained toward the airplane rating can be used for the rotorcraft rating.
  2. he/she must complete the rotorcraft practical test in its entirety as per the private pilot rotorcraft practical test standards.
  3. some of the training/flight experience acquired toward the airplane rating can be used to meet the requirements for a rotorcraft category rating.

Published code: PLT451 · PDF page 20

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88Anemic hypoxia has the same symptoms as hypoxic hypoxia, but it is most often a result of
  1. poor blood circulation.
  2. a leaking exhaust manifold.
  3. use of alcohol or drugs before flight.

Published code: PLT330 · PDF page 20

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89What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
  1. Aircraft control.
  2. Instrument cross-check.
  3. Instrument interpretation.

Published code: PLT185 · PDF page 20

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90What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
  1. Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
  2. Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
  3. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

Published code: PLT185 · PDF page 20

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91An increase in temperature with an altitude increase
  1. is indication of an inversion.
  2. denotes the beginning of the stratosphere.
  3. means a cold front passage.

Published code: PLT512 · PDF page 21

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92A surface inversion can
  1. indicate the chance of gusty winds.
  2. produce poor visibility.
  3. mean an unstable air mass.

Published code: PLT512 · PDF page 21

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93Convective SIGMETs are issued for which weather conditions?
  1. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.
  2. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds.
  3. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4 inch hail or tornadoes.

Published code: PLT290 · PDF page 21

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94When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as
  1. 6PSM.
  2. P6SM.
  3. 6SMP.

Published code: PLT288 · PDF page 21

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95What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF? TAFKCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FGFM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=
  1. 5 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
  2. 50 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
  3. 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

Published code: PLT288 · PDF page 21

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96When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,
  1. greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.
  2. risk is increased.
  3. risk is decreased.

Published code: PLT104 · PDF page 22

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97Automation in aircraft has proven to
  1. present new hazards in its limitations.
  2. that automation is basically flawless.
  3. prevent accidents.

Published code: PLT104 · PDF page 22

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98The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation
  1. are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
  2. have proven to increase safety in operations.
  3. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

Published code: PLT104 · PDF page 22

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99Human behavior
  1. rarely results in accidents unless deliberate actions are performed.
  2. causes three out of four accidents.
  3. is well understood, so behavioral induced accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences.

Published code: PLT104 · PDF page 22

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100Determine the condition of the aircraft: Pilot: 160 lb; 26 inch arm Passenger: 120 lb; 26 inch arm Baggage: 80 lb; 62 inch arm Fuel: 24 gal; 7 inch arm Airplane empty weight: 730.5 lbs Empty CG: 17 inches MAC: 59 inches MGTOW: 1,320 lbs
  1. The aircraft is slightly over MGTOW with the CG aft of the aft limit of 37% MAC.
  2. The aircraft is under MGTOW with the CG at 35.2% MAC.
  3. The CG is forward of the aft limit of 37% and the aircraft is 100 pounds under MGTOW.

Published code: PLT021 · PDF page 23

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Fundamentals of Instructing

FOI · 20 samples
01In order to maintain learner motivation and progress, the instructor should
  1. make each lesson a pleasant experience.
  2. make each lesson easy for learner achievement.
  3. repeat each lesson until the learner is confident.

Published code: PLT230 · PDF page 2

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02Professional aviation instructors need to commit themselves to
  1. maintaining minimal qualifications and standards.
  2. continuous professional development.
  3. sharing responsibility for phases of training.

Published code: PLT229 · PDF page 2

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03When a dual cross-country flight cannot be conducted as planned due to weather, an instructor should
  1. cancel the lesson to prevent the learner from becoming frustrated.
  2. begin the next lesson in the training syllabus.
  3. consider the current block of learning and select an appropriate alternate lesson.

Published code: PLT228 · PDF page 2

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04In a syllabus with the objective leading to the first solo flight, a block of learning that contains cross-country procedures
  1. is a required part of the objective.
  2. would detract from the completion of the objective.
  3. would assist in the attainment of the objective.

Published code: PLT295 · PDF page 2

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05What is a characteristic of a learner-centered assessment?
  1. It is conducted jointly between the learner and the instructor.
  2. The learner is not directly involved in the assessment until reaching a specific level.
  3. The instructor provides the assessment directly to the learner.

Published code: PLT482 · PDF page 2

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06What is the most appropriate statement regarding the teaching lecture?
  1. The instructor cannot offer learners with varied backgrounds a common understanding.
  2. The instructor receives direct feedback from students which is obvious and easily interpreted.
  3. The instructor must develop a keen perception for subtle responses from the class.

Published code: PLT488 · PDF page 3

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07When taking a written test, what selection-type test items reduces the probability of guessing correct responses?
  1. Multiple Choice.
  2. Matching.
  3. True-false.

Published code: PLT482 · PDF page 3

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08How should an instructor critique a learner?
  1. The critique should be conducted in public to promote peer feedback and a group learning experience.
  2. The critique should vary in content as necessary to accommodate the performance being evaluated.
  3. The critique should be delivered verbally with a focus on exemplary performance.

Published code: PLT482 · PDF page 3

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09Which law of learning is being employed when an instructor communicates a clear set of objectives to the learner and relates each new topic to those objectives?
  1. Primacy.
  2. Readiness.
  3. Intensity.

Published code: PLT308 · PDF page 3

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10Which term is used to describe why a person pushes a memory out of reach because that person does not want to remember the feelings associated with it?
  1. Compensation.
  2. Regression.
  3. Repression.

Published code: PLT307 · PDF page 4

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11What should you use in order to remove barriers to effective communication?
  1. Abstract terminology since concepts described in this way are universal and common to most learners.
  2. Language emphasizing that the learner should make an appropriate response for each situation.
  3. Concrete terms that refer to objects or concepts related to the learner's own experiences.

Published code: PLT204 · PDF page 4

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12Which statement is true regarding flight instructor responsibilities?
  1. The flight instructor should motivate learners by using harsh criticism if a learner needs a behavioral change.
  2. The flight instructor should prepare the learner to become a safe pilot who takes a professional approach to flying.
  3. The flight instructor should avoid admitting personal errors, so learner confidence in the instructor is not undermined.

Published code: PLT230 · PDF page 4

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13Which defense mechanism is displayed when a learner performs poorly on a test and justifies the poor grade by claiming there was not enough time to learn the required information but did not take advantage of a computerized pre-test offered by the instructor?
  1. Displacement.
  2. Reaction formation.
  3. Rationalization.

Published code: PLT233 · PDF page 4

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14What is the difference between acute and chronic fatigue?
  1. Chronic fatigue results from apathy, but acute fatigue does not.
  2. Chronic fatigue results from repeated episodes of acute fatigue when there is not enough recovery time between episodes.
  3. Acute fatigue results from repeated episodes of chronic fatigue when there is not enough recovery time between episodes.

Published code: PLT295 · PDF page 5

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15What are the four steps in the teaching process?
  1. Research, presentation, grading, and review.
  2. Preparation, presentation, application, and assessment.
  3. Presentation, explanation, review, and critique.

Published code: PLT491 · PDF page 5

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16How can errors be reduced?
  1. Through learning and practice.
  2. Hurrying to achieve faster results.
  3. Waiting for the learner to detect them.

Published code: PLT218 · PDF page 5

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17How might understanding learning styles help in the design of lesson plans?
  1. It may predict the learner's performance during training.
  2. It can help instructors make adjustments in how material is presented.
  3. It may identify ways to motivate groups of learners to work as a unit.

Published code: PLT306 · PDF page 5

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18When teaching adult learners, instructors should
  1. recognize the adult learner’s need to control pace and start/stop time.
  2. provide a uniform, specific, and predictable pace for all instructional activities.
  3. ensure that new ideas are separate from an already established body of knowledge.

Published code: PLT270 · PDF page 5

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19When conducting an oral assessment, which of the following is an example of a type of question to avoid?
  1. What is the first step in conducting a pre-flight?
  2. What do you do before beginning a flight?
  3. How do you check for correct tire pressure?

Published code: PLT482 · PDF page 5

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20What is a use of instructional aids?
  1. Demonstrating simple concepts, but not complicated ideas.
  2. Using instructional aids as a substitute for verbal instruction.
  3. Clarifying relationships between material objects and concepts.

Published code: PLT504 · PDF page 6

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Airline Transport Pilot

ATM · 100 samples
01As required by Part 121, an airport may be listed as an alternate in the flight release only if the weather forecast indicates that conditions will be at or above the
  1. alternate weather minima specified in the operation specifications at the time of arrival.
  2. lowest available IAP minima at the time of arrival.
  3. lowest available IAP minima for 1 hour before to 1 hour after the time of arrival.

Published code: AA.I.G.K4 · PDF page 2

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02(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 144.) On final approach to the airport, airplane in position #5 would experience
  1. decreased ground speed.
  2. downdraft.
  3. poor performance.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3h · PDF page 2 · Figure/reference required

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03What effect does extending leading edge slats have on an airplane's wing?
  1. Increases the pitch up moment of an airfoil.
  2. Increases the camber and CL-MAX .
  3. Allows for earlier airflow separation.

Published code: AA.I.A.K12 · PDF page 2

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04A Runway Status Light (RWSL) System at an airport
  1. relies on ASDE-X/Airport Surface Surveillance Capability (ASSC).
  2. allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications.
  3. does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing a go-around.

Published code: AA.II.C.K3 · PDF page 2

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05Under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning?
  1. When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landings.
  2. When departing a grooved runway with less than a thousandth of an inch of water.
  3. When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam is rising from the landing surface.

Published code: AA.III.B.R1 · PDF page 3

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06(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a takeoff on Runway 9?
  1. 1,000 feet.
  2. 1,800 feet.
  3. 1,500 feet.

Published code: AA.III.A.K4 · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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07Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
  1. Visual acuity.
  2. Decreased breathing rate.
  3. Tingling sensations.

Published code: AA.I.F.K1b · PDF page 3

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08Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition?
  1. Significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitude.
  2. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen.
  3. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Published code: AA.I.F.K1a · PDF page 3

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09When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?
  1. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
  2. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
  3. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less.

Published code: AA.VI.J.K1 · PDF page 3

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10How does an increase in an aircraft's weight affect its climb performance?
  1. The aircraft will climb at a lower angle of attack, which allows for a higher TAS and higher rate of climb.
  2. Both parasite and induced drag are increased, which will lower the reserve thrust available to climb.
  3. A higher aircraft weight requires that the aircraft is configured for climb earlier in the departure which allows a greater climb gradient.

Published code: AA.I.B.K2c · PDF page 4

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11What is the absolute ceiling of an airplane?
  1. The point where the minimum rate of climb becomes lower than the optimum L/DMAX speed.
  2. The altitude at which the aircraft is unable to climb at more than 100 feet per minute.
  3. When the maximum rate of climb and the maximum angle of climb speeds converge.

Published code: AA.I.B.K2c · PDF page 4

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12(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation for the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor International airport is
  1. 1,126 feet.
  2. 1,135 feet.
  3. 1,326 feet.

Published code: AA.VI.E.K1 · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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13In a turbojet aircraft, when is braking performance optimized during landing?
  1. Before the nose wheel touches down.
  2. Wheel spin-up at touchdown.
  3. Maximum weight on main wheels.

Published code: AA.I.A.K1 · PDF page 4

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14When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to an aircraft operating at FL 270, it will be at a speed not less than
  1. 250 knots.
  2. 210 knots.
  3. 200 knots.

Published code: AA.VI.C.K3 · PDF page 5

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15You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is
  1. fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM.
  2. fully configured with the engines spooled up and a descent rate of no more than 500 FPM.
  3. at least partially configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of no more than 1,200 FPM.

Published code: AA.VI.E.K4 · PDF page 5

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16To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with
  1. a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM.
  2. a GPS (TSO-C129) receiver certified for IFR operations.
  3. an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.

Published code: AA.VI.E.K2 · PDF page 5

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17When is the pilot responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles?
  1. ATC maintains responsibility if the pilot is operating under IFR.
  2. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of flight rules.
  3. When they have accepted an instruction to "maintain visual separation."

Published code: AA.VI.C.K3 · PDF page 5

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18How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?
  1. It varies directly with a change in altitude.
  2. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb.
  3. It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.

Published code: AA.V.B.K1 · PDF page 6

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19While on an ILS approach, what is the proper way to recover from an impending stall?
  1. Engage the autopilot.
  2. Changing flap settings.
  3. Reducing the angle of attack.

Published code: AA.V.C.K5 · PDF page 6

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20(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 241 and 242.) You land on Runway 12 at LGB and plan to exit the runway to the right on Taxiway J. What potential risk should you be aware of on the airport diagram?
  1. Convergence of taxiways D and J.
  2. Convergence of taxiways C and J.
  3. Convergence of runways 16R-34L and 07R-25L.

Published code: AA.II.C.K6 · PDF page 6 · Figure/reference required

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21The crew monitoring function is essential,
  1. particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT issues.
  2. particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT.
  3. during RNAV departures in class B airspace.

Published code: AA.I.E.K12 · PDF page 6

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22One purpose of Crew Resource Management (CRM) is to give crews tools to
  1. recognize and mitigate hazards.
  2. maintain currency with regulations.
  3. reduce the need for outside resources.

Published code: AA.I.E.K12 · PDF page 6

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23For passenger-carrying operations under 14 CFR part 121, which situation would be considered part of the required rest period?
  1. Deadheading to home base after the last scheduled flight.
  2. Electing to fly as a passenger from home base after the flight duty period ends.
  3. Training conducted in a flight simulator.

Published code: AA.I.G.K3 · PDF page 7

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24What is an advantage of a sweptback wing?
  1. It allows shock wave induced flow separation.
  2. The design delays the onset of compressibility.
  3. The wings tend to stall at the wing root first.

Published code: AA.I.B.K4 · PDF page 7

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25When piloting a turbojet transport airplane, what is a possible result when operating at speeds 5-10 percent above the critical Mach number?
  1. Increased aerodynamic efficiency.
  2. Decreased control surface effectiveness.
  3. Occasional low speed Mach buffet warnings.

Published code: AA.I.B.K4 · PDF page 7

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26While operating a turbojet transport airplane at high altitude, which of the following is most likely to cause a low speed Mach buffet?
  1. Reducing the angle of attack after a high speed Mach buffet.
  2. The airplane is flown too fast for its weight and altitude.
  3. Tthe airplane is flown too slow for its weight and altitude.

Published code: AA.I.D.K9 · PDF page 7

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27(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 473.) What is the maximum permissible takeoff weight with an airfield altitude of 7,300 feet and an outside air temperature of 24 °C?
  1. 65,000 pounds.
  2. 62,400 pounds.
  3. 63,800 pounds.

Published code: AA.I.B.K2b · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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28(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 478.) With a reported temperature of 5°C, and a weight of 57,000 pounds, an altitude of 5,355 feet, and a V1/VR ratio of 1.0, the accelerate - stop distance is
  1. 4,100 feet.
  2. 4,900 feet.
  3. 5,900 feet.

Published code: AA.I.B.K2a · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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29According to 14 CFR part 121, what requirements must the second-in-command possess?
  1. ATP certificate with appropriate type rating.
  2. ATP certificate with appropriate second-in-command type rating.
  3. ATP certificate and third-class medical certificate.

Published code: AA.I.G.K4 · PDF page 8

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30(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 149.) What is the forecasted wind direction, speed, and temperature over ABI at 30,000 feet?
  1. 240°, 108 knots, -33°C.
  2. 240°, 8 knots, -33°C.
  3. 240°, 8 knots, 33°C.

Published code: AA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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31(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) and Humble (IAH)?
  1. 24 miles from IAH.
  2. 18 miles from IAH.
  3. Halfway between TNV and IAH.

Published code: AA.VI.C.K1 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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32(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 293.) What is the distance from ASALT intersection to the MAP?
  1. 8.6 NM.
  2. 2.6 NM.
  3. 6 NM.

Published code: AA.VI.D.K1 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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33(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW in a WAAS-equipped aircraft, on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, the CDI needle begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no increase in cross track. In this situation, you
  1. should immediately execute the missed approach.
  2. know that the sensitivity of the CDI has increased.
  3. would turn to the right to center the CDI needle.

Published code: AA.VI.D.K2 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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34(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 465.) What is the reference stall speed if you will be landing the aircraft at 55,000 pounds and 35° of flaps?
  1. 92 knots.
  2. 97 knots.
  3. 102 knots.

Published code: AA.I.B.K2f · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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35(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 474.) What is the gross climb gradient with the following conditions? Outside air temperature: 0 °C Airfield altitude: 4,000 feet Weight: 55,000 pounds
  1. 0.052%
  2. 0.020%
  3. 0.074%

Published code: AA.I.B.K1 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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36(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 145.) The minimums for the nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4 mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR data?
  1. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requirements.
  2. No, they do not meet the minimum visibility requirements.
  3. No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.

Published code: AA.I.G.K4 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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37What is the maximum load that can be placed on a pallet without exceeding the floor weight limit of 260 pounds per square foot? Pallet dimensions: 95.2 inches X 140.1 inches Pallet weight: 350 pounds Tiedown devices: 120 pounds
  1. 23,611 pounds.
  2. 24,076 pounds.
  3. 24,546 pounds.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3e · PDF page 10

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38Ground spoilers used after landing are
  1. more effective at low speed.
  2. equally effective at any speed.
  3. more effective at high speed.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3c · PDF page 10

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39(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to turn left heading 030 and proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What should you do if you are in IMC?
  1. Enter holding at LAHAB on the 185 degree radial until reaching 15,000 feet.
  2. Advise Departure Control you cannot make the clearance and request radar vectors.
  3. Turn toward the Long Beach airport temporarily and continue the climb until you can cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet.

Published code: AA.VI.B.K3 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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40Embedded thunderstorms, which can be hazardous during instrument flight, are most likely to occur
  1. behind a fast-moving cold front.
  2. in a warm front occlusion.
  3. in a cold front occlusion.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3h · PDF page 10

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41A squall line is most likely to be encountered
  1. on or ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air.
  2. during the passage of a warm front.
  3. in an area of rising barometric pressure.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3h · PDF page 11

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42What would authorize an air carrier to conduct a Special Instrument Approach Procedure?
  1. Operations Specifications.
  2. Compliance Statement.
  3. Training Specifications.

Published code: AA.I.E.K14 · PDF page 11

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43(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 69.) Before departure, you learn that your destination airport`s arrivals are holding for 30 minutes on the arrival. In a two- engine aircraft, how many pounds of fuel would be required to hold at 10,000 feet with an EPR of 1.26 and an airplane weight of 85,000 pounds?
  1. 1,155 pounds.
  2. 2,310 pounds.
  3. 4,620 pounds.

Published code: AA.VI.J.K2 · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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44An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from a domestic airport which is not listed in the carrier`s operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums prescribed for the airport, and the weather is currently reporting a 900 foot overcast ceiling and 1 mile visibility in mist. The flight may
  1. not depart until the weather improves.
  2. depart if an alternate departure airport is filed.
  3. depart without an alternate departure airport.

Published code: AA.I.G.K4 · PDF page 11

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45During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the
  1. aircraft is in an unusual attitude.
  2. gyroscopic instruments have failed.
  3. pitot static system has malfunctioned.

Published code: AA.VII.A.K6 · PDF page 12

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46To improve the effectiveness and safety of the entire operations team as a working system, CRM training should include
  1. usage of seat-dependent checklists.
  2. employee groups beyond the flightcrew.
  3. failures the flightcrew must work through as a team.

Published code: AA.I.E.K12 · PDF page 12

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47While airborne and below the MEA, the pilot accepts an IFR clearance. Sole responsibility for terrain and obstruction clearance remains with the pilot unless
  1. the flight continues in clouds or above a ceiling and ATC transmits "RADAR CONTACT."
  2. an appropriate minimum IFR altitude providing obstruction clearance is attained.
  3. the pilot advises ATC that he or she is unable to maintain terrain/obstruction clearance.

Published code: AA.VI.B.K3 · PDF page 12

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48What weather phenomenon can be associated with the tropopause?
  1. A constant temperature lapse rate.
  2. Clear air turbulence associated with the jet stream.
  3. The deflection of air currents to the right.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3g · PDF page 12

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49How are wind speeds of 100 through 199 knots indicated on a Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast?
  1. By subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction.
  2. In the format of three-digit direction and three-digit speed.
  3. This range is required to be annotated in plain language.

Published code: AA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 12

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50(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 140 and 141.) If on a back course to the Runway 9 approach, to which HSI presentation does aircraft 8 correspond?
  1. Figure H.
  2. Figure I.
  3. Figure E.

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51Which of the following is a visual indication of conditions favorable to supercooled large droplet icing?
  1. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C.
  2. Clear ice accumulation on the active part of the deicing boot.
  3. Rapid ice accumulation on the propeller hub.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3i · PDF page 13

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52Risk is increased when flightcrew members
  1. fail to monitor automated navigation systems.
  2. allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems.
  3. question the performance of each other`s duties.

Published code: AA.I.E.K2 · PDF page 13

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53In advanced avionics aircraft, proper automation management requires
  1. relying on flight management systems to navigate in order for the pilot to perform other tasks.
  2. a thorough understanding of how the autopilot interacts with other systems.
  3. the pilot to refrain from monitoring the automation after initial programming.

Published code: AA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 13

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54For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
  1. increases with an increase in airspeed.
  2. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes.
  3. decreases with an increase in airspeed.

Published code: AA.IV.A.K2d · PDF page 13

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55How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
  1. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
  2. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
  3. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.

Published code: AA.IV.A.K2e · PDF page 14

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56Consumption of alcohol
  1. can severely impair a person for more than 8 hours.
  2. is of no concern in aviation after 8 hours regardless of amount consumed.
  3. in small amounts has no effect on judgment and decision-making.

Published code: AA.I.F.K2 · PDF page 14

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57When penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the illusion of
  1. pitching up.
  2. flying at a lower altitude.
  3. constant turning.

Published code: AA.I.F.K1k · PDF page 14

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58For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if
  1. immediately followed by 11 hours of rest.
  2. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.
  3. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.

Published code: AA.I.G.K3 · PDF page 14

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59For domestic operations under 14 CFR part 121, who is responsible for the preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of a flight?
  1. Pilot in command and chief pilot.
  2. Director of operations and aircraft dispatcher.
  3. Pilot in command and aircraft dispatcher.

Published code: AA.I.G.K4 · PDF page 14

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60(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 22.) You are considering a takeoff from a runway with a magnetic heading of 330°, and the tower reported winds are 290° at 25 knots. What would be the computed headwind component?
  1. 19 knots.
  2. 25 knots.
  3. 16 knots.

Published code: AA.III.A.K1 · PDF page 15 · Figure/reference required

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61High density altitude can reduce turbojet aircraft performance in which of the following ways?
  1. It reduces the likelihood of maintaining laminar flow over the airfoils as airspeed and altitude increase.
  2. It reduces thrust because there is a reduced mass of gases to force out of the exhaust.
  3. It reduces thrust because there is an increased mass of gases that inhibits the outflow of exhaust.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3a · PDF page 15

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62What should a pilot do if the remaining fuel supply requires priority handling after declaring "minimum fuel" with ATC?
  1. Declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
  2. Continue with your minimum fuel status, and advise ATC that you would prefer no further delays.
  3. Cancel your minimum fuel status, and prepare to divert to your filed alternate airport.

Published code: AA.VI.C.K3 · PDF page 15

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63As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes, what happens to the calibrated airspeed in relation to true airspeed?
  1. It remains equal.
  2. It decreases.
  3. It increases.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3a · PDF page 15

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64(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?
  1. 9,300 pounds.
  2. 10,270 pounds.
  3. 11,232 pounds.

Published code: AA.I.B.K2d · PDF page 16 · Figure/reference required

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65Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON)?
  1. To provide VOR navigation service in the Western Mountainous USA below GPS signal coverage.
  2. To maintain the enroute Victor airway structure on overwater routes in the Gulf of Mexico.
  3. To support navigation of non-DME/DME equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS outage.

Published code: AA.II.A.K6 · PDF page 16

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66Jet streams are strongest during which season in the Northern Hemisphere?
  1. Spring.
  2. Summer.
  3. Winter.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3e · PDF page 16

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67Which are terms a pilot should use when reporting the quality of braking action for a runway?
  1. Good to medium.
  2. Bad to minimum.
  3. Effective to adequate.

Published code: AA.I.B.K9 · PDF page 16

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68A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current weather is rainy, but is expected to clear with temperature/dew point spread forecast to be 10°C/10°C and winds at 330/5. What weather conditions should you expect?
  1. Visual meteorological conditions until later in the day.
  2. These conditions could produce radiation fog.
  3. Dense fog that deepens later in the day.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3j · PDF page 16

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69You are planning a flight to the West Coast of the United States, which is currently below the published weather minimums for an ILS approach to that airport. The winds are forecast to increase to above 20 knots from the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather conditions should you expect?
  1. Visual meteorological conditions.
  2. Advection fog will deepen with winds above 20 knots.
  3. A layer of low stratus or stratocumulus is expected.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3j · PDF page 17

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70You are planning to arrive at the KHOU airport at 0900Z, what conditions can be expected as indicated by this TAF: KHOU 151720Z 1518/1618 22009KT P6SM SCT030 SCT250 FM160000 18005KT P6SM BKN050 BKN120 FM160600 21007KT P6SM VCSH SCT025 BKN200 FM160900 34010KT P6SM VCTS BKN035CB BKN250 TEMPO 1611/1613 TSRA BKN012 OVC025CB FM161600 35007KT P6SM BKN020
  1. Winds from the south. blowing to the north at 10 knots.
  2. Thunderstorm activity 5-10 miles from the airport's runway complex.
  3. Rain showers, scattered clouds at 2500 feet, and overcast at 20,000 feet.

Published code: AA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 17

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71What is the reported ceiling in the following METAR? KHOT 181253Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM FG VV001 08/08 A3000 RMK AO2 SLP158 T00780078
  1. Indefinite at 100 feet.
  2. Variable at 100 feet.
  3. Measured at 100 feet.

Published code: AA.I.C.K2 · PDF page 17

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72(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 154.) What weather phenomenon can be found at Area #1 on the chart?
  1. A high pressure area.
  2. A low pressure trough.
  3. A strong pressure ridge.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3e · PDF page 17 · Figure/reference required

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73Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate it in the transmit mode
  1. at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC.
  2. when operating in Class B and C airspace, excluding operations conducted under Day VFR.
  3. all classes of airspace when the flight is operated for compensation or hire but not otherwise.

Published code: AA.I.G.K2 · PDF page 18

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74(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 262 and 263.) In a turbojet airplane, when assigned the RIICE THREE ARRIVAL, at what speed would ATC expect you to cross RIICE intersection when landing EAST at IAH?
  1. 250 KIAS.
  2. 280 KIAS.
  3. 200 KIAS.

Published code: AA.VI.C.K1 · PDF page 18 · Figure/reference required

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75What conditions would cause an Air Traffic Controller to issue you a Safety Alert?
  1. When your approach has become unstable, and you are required to execute a go-around.
  2. When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
  3. When they have implemented a temporary reduction in approach control separation minimums.

Published code: AA.VI.C.K3 · PDF page 18

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76Under 14 CFR part 121, when may non-essential communications take place below 10,000 feet?
  1. In VMC conditions.
  2. Before the Final Approach Fix.
  3. During cruise flight.

Published code: AA.I.G.K4 · PDF page 18

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77Under 14 CFR part 91, what are the minimum number of hours that must pass after alcohol consumption before attempting to act as a crewmember?
  1. 8.
  2. 10.
  3. 12.

Published code: AA.I.G.K2 · PDF page 19

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78(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 163A) Arriving at Ryan Field at 1600Z under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) in a turbine-powered airplane, at what altitude should you enter the traffic pattern and remain at that altitude until further descent is required for a safe landing?
  1. 1,000 feet AGL.
  2. 2,500 feet AGL.
  3. 1,500 feet AGL.

Published code: AA.I.G.K2 · PDF page 19 · Figure/reference required

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79What course of action should the pilot take if encountering freezing rain?
  1. Climb because the temperature is warmer at a higher altitude.
  2. Descend because the temperature is warmer at a lower altitude.
  3. No change is necessary if all anti-ice/deice equipment is working.

Published code: AA.I.C.K3i · PDF page 19

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80Given the following, what would be the maximum payload? Basic operating weight (BOW) = 100,500 lbs. Maximum zero fuel weight = 138,000 lbs. Maximum landing weight = 142,000 lbs. Maximum takeoff weight = 184,200 lbs. Fuel load = 40,000 lbs. Fuel tank capacity = 54,000 lbs.
  1. 43,700 lbs.
  2. 37,500 lbs.
  3. 29,700 lbs.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3e · PDF page 19

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81(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 419.) With the following conditions, would the airplane be in the approved weight and CG envelope for landing? CG location: 25% MAC Aircraft Weight: 74,000 lbs.
  1. No, the airplane is over the maximum approved landing weight.
  2. Yes, the airplane is within the approved weight and CG envelope.
  3. No, the airplane is below the maximum landing weight, but the CG is aft of limits.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3e · PDF page 20 · Figure/reference required

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82When is ear blockage most likely to occur?
  1. Upon descent and is aggravated by upper respiratory infection.
  2. During initial climb-out as expanding air in the middle ear pushes the eustachian tube open.
  3. During cruise flight as the pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin equalizes.

Published code: AA.I.F.K1c · PDF page 20

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83Which of the following is an effect of acute fatigue on performance?
  1. Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements.
  2. Heightened acuity in peripheral vision.
  3. Mild euphoria, impaired judgment, and increased reaction time.

Published code: AA.I.F.K1h · PDF page 20

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84In order to assess risk in aeronautical decision-making, what two basic considerations are recommended?
  1. Convenience and effort required.
  2. Likelihood and severity.
  3. Time and cost efficiency.

Published code: AA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 20

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85The maximum tailwind component of the airplane is 10 knots. The actual tailwind calculated is 11 knots. Other aircraft are continuing to land, so you decide to ignore the limitation and land as well. Which hazardous attitude are you displaying?
  1. Impulsivity.
  2. Resignation.
  3. Anti-authority.

Published code: AA.I.F.R2 · PDF page 21

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86Which of the following is one of the five traits discovered to be common in pilots who have had accidents in their past?
  1. A low correlation between traffic safety violations and flying safety mishaps.
  2. A tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined, especially in decision- making.
  3. A sense of respect for rules and procedures.

Published code: AA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 21

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87What type of stressor can lead to poor decision-making?
  1. Lack of sleep.
  2. Lack of high workload.
  3. Lack of motivation.

Published code: AA.I.F.K3 · PDF page 21

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88What is the purpose of a zero fuel weight limitation?
  1. To limit load forces on the wing spars with heavy fuselage loads.
  2. To limit load forces on the fuselage with a heavy wing fuel load.
  3. To prevent overstressing the landing gear during a hard landing.

Published code: AA.I.B.K3e · PDF page 21

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89(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 419.) You are preparing for a flight, with the following planned loading at takeoff. Would the aircraft be within the approved weight limitations? Basic operating weight (including crew): 49,500 lb. Passengers, baggage, and cargo: 20,850 lb. Fuel weight: 9,500 lb.
  1. Yes, the weight would be within limits.
  2. No, max zero fuel weight would be exceeded.
  3. No, the max takeoff weight would be exceeded.

Published code: AA.II.A.K2d · PDF page 21 · Figure/reference required

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90What information is de-identified when a report is submitted through the Aviation Safety Reporting System (ASRS)?
  1. Crew identity information when criminal offenses have occurred.
  2. Crew identity information involving time-sensitive data.
  3. Crew identity information when prompt NTSB reporting is required.

Published code: AA.I.E.K13 · PDF page 22

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91What manual should the crewmembers of an air carrier reference when determining if a portable electronic device is allowed to be operated on an aircraft?
  1. The aircraft's approved flight manual.
  2. The air carrier’s policy and procedures manual.
  3. The operating manual for the device.

Published code: AA.I.E.K11 · PDF page 22

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92If available, what action could a pilot of an air carrier take if they violate a federal regulation because of an air traffic control direction?
  1. File a report through the Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program (VDRP).
  2. File a report through the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP).
  3. File a report through the Flight Operational Quality Assurance Program (FOQA).

Published code: AA.I.E.K13 · PDF page 22

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93What is the purpose of a Flight Operational Quality Assurance (FOQA) program?
  1. To identify pilots who are having problems operationally.
  2. To identify aggregate information for error trends.
  3. To provide accountability within the air carrier system.

Published code: AA.I.E.K13 · PDF page 22

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94What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the Center of Gravity (CG) beyond the published forward limitations?
  1. The flight control forces may become very light.
  2. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing.
  3. It could be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall.

Published code: AA.I.B.K5 · PDF page 22

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95What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the Center of Gravity (CG) beyond the published aft limitations?
  1. The flight control forces may become very heavy.
  2. It could be difficult to flare for landing.
  3. It could be impossible to recover from a stall.

Published code: AA.I.B.K5 · PDF page 22

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96When does a typical aircraft exhibit reduced longitudinal stability?
  1. With the Center of Gravity (CG) near the aft limit.
  2. With the Center of Gravity (CG) near the forward limit.
  3. With the Center of Gravity (CG) at a mid-range location.

Published code: AA.I.B.K5 · PDF page 23

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97What could cause a turbine engine hot start?
  1. Lack of airflow due to insufficient turbine rpm.
  2. Inlet and compressor airflow imbalance.
  3. Insufficient fuel in the combustion chamber.

Published code: AA.I.A.K2 · PDF page 23

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98You are the pilot in command of a 14 CFR part 121 domestic operation flight. In addition to yourself, who is jointly responsible for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of the flight?
  1. The director of operations.
  2. The chief pilot or designee.
  3. The aircraft dispatcher.

Published code: AA.I.E.K9 · PDF page 23

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99In a multicrew environment, who is responsible for the tone, pace, outcome of decisions made, and will be held accountable for all outcomes in air carrier flights?
  1. First officer.
  2. Air carrier.
  3. Captain.

Published code: AA.I.E.K11 · PDF page 23

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100Your airline recently initiated a new safety partnership with the FAA utilizing the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) for all pilots, flight attendants, dispatchers and mechanics. What does ASAP encourage?
  1. Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP report after receiving a criminal substance abuse conviction so they do not face additional FAA enforcement.
  2. Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP report after receiving a criminal substance abuse conviction so they do not face additional FAA enforcement.
  3. Encourages airline management to utilize ASAP reports and voluntarily report safety information to derive synergies and cost savings for the airline.

Published code: AA.I.E.K13 · PDF page 23

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Remote Pilot · Part 107

UAG · 46 samples
01What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
  1. Turbulence and showery precipitation.
  2. Poor visibility and smooth air.
  3. Haze and smoke.

Published code: UA.III.B.K1d · PDF page 2

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02According to 14 CFR part 107, how may a remote pilot operate an unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace?
  1. The remote pilot must have prior authorization from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility having jurisdiction over that airspace.
  2. The remote pilot must monitor the Air Traffic Control (ATC) frequency from launch to recovery.
  3. The remote pilot must contact the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility after launching the unmanned aircraft.

Published code: UA.I.B.K16 · PDF page 2

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03According to 14 CFR part 107 the remote pilot in command (PIC) of a small unmanned aircraft planning to operate within Class C airspace
  1. must use a visual observer.
  2. is required to file a flight plan.
  3. is required to receive ATC authorization.

Published code: UA.II.A.K1b · PDF page 2

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04What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?
  1. Propeller efficiency is increased.
  2. Propeller efficiency is decreased.
  3. Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.

Published code: UA.III.B.K1a · PDF page 2

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05(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 22, area 2.) At Coeur D`Alene which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
  1. 122.05 MHz.
  2. 135.075 MHz.
  3. 122.8 MHz.

Published code: UA.V.B.K6a · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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06Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic? A remote pilot should
  1. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
  2. concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
  3. continuously scan the sky from right to left.

Published code: UA.I.B.K14a · PDF page 3

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07(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 2.) If an unmanned airplane weighs 33 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
  1. 34 pounds.
  2. 47 pounds.
  3. 38 pounds.

Published code: UA.IV.A.K1a · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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08(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
  1. 1,300 feet AGL.
  2. 1,300 feet MSL.
  3. 1,700 feet MSL.

Published code: UA.II.A.K1b · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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09(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, area 3.) With ATC authorization, you are operating your small unmanned aircraft approximately 4 SM southeast of Elizabeth City Regional Airport (ECG). What hazard is indicated to be in that area?
  1. High density military operations in the vicinity.
  2. Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet AGL.
  3. Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet MSL.

Published code: UA.V.B.K6a · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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10(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) You have been hired by a farmer to use your small UA to inspect his crops. The area that you are to survey is in the Devil`s Lake West MOA, east of area 2. How would you find out if the MOA is active?
  1. Refer to the chart legend.
  2. This information is available in the Small UAS database.
  3. Refer to the Military Operations Directory.

Published code: UA.II.A.K2 · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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11The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by
  1. the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).
  2. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
  3. Terminal Area Chart (TAC).

Published code: UA.V.B.K6b · PDF page 4

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12Identify the hazardous attitude or characteristic a remote pilot displays while taking risks in order to impress others?
  1. Impulsivity.
  2. Invulnerability.
  3. Macho.

Published code: UA.V.D.K4 · PDF page 4

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13(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, area 4.) You have been hired to inspect the tower under construction at 46.9N and 98.6W, near Jamestown Regional (JMS). What must you receive prior to flying your unmanned aircraft in this area?
  1. Authorization from the military.
  2. Authorization from ATC.
  3. Authorization from the National Park Service.

Published code: UA.V.B.K6a · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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14(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, area 5.) How would a remote PIC "CHECK NOTAMS" as noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon?
  1. By utilizing the B4UFLY mobile application.
  2. By contacting the FAA district office.
  3. By obtaining a briefing via an online source such as: 1800WXBrief.com.

Published code: UA.II.B.K5 · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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15When adapting crew resource management (CRM) concepts to the operation of a small UA, CRM must be integrated into
  1. the flight portion only.
  2. all phases of the operation.
  3. the communications only.

Published code: UA.V.D.K2 · PDF page 5

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16You have been hired as a remote pilot by a local TV news station to film breaking news with a small UA. You expressed a safety concern and the station manager has instructed you to `fly first, ask questions later.` What type of hazardous attitude does this attitude represent?
  1. Machismo.
  2. Invulnerability.
  3. Impulsivity.

Published code: UA.V.D.K4 · PDF page 5

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17A local TV station has hired a remote pilot to operate their small UA to cover news stories. The remote pilot has had multiple near misses with obstacles on the ground and two small UAS accidents. What would be a solution for the news station to improve their operating safety culture?
  1. The news station should implement a policy of no more than five crashes/incidents within 6 months.
  2. The news station does not need to make any changes; there are times that an accident is unavoidable.
  3. The news station should recognize hazardous attitudes and situations and develop standard operating procedures that emphasize safety.

Published code: UA.V.D.K1 · PDF page 5

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18(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, area 2.) While monitoring the Cooperstown CTAF you hear an aircraft announce that they are midfield left downwind to RWY 13. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway?
  1. The aircraft is East.
  2. The aircraft is South.
  3. The aircraft is West.

Published code: UA.V.A.K3 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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19To avoid a possible collision with a manned airplane, you estimate that your small UA climbed to an altitude greater than 600 feet AGL. To whom must you report the deviation?
  1. Air Traffic Control.
  2. The National Transportation Safety Board.
  3. Upon request of the Federal Aviation Administration.

Published code: UA.V.C.K1 · PDF page 6

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20When operating an unmanned airplane, the remote pilot should consider that the load factor on the wings may be increased any time
  1. the CG is shifted rearward to the aft CG limit.
  2. the airplane is subjected to maneuvers other than straight-and-level flight.
  3. the gross weight is reduced.

Published code: UA.IV.A.K1a · PDF page 6

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21A stall occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned airplane`s wing is disrupted and the lift degenerates rapidly. This is caused when the wing
  1. exceeds the maximum speed.
  2. exceeds maximum allowable operating weight.
  3. exceeds its critical angle of attack.

Published code: UA.IV.A.K1b · PDF page 6

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22Safety is an important element for a remote pilot to consider prior to operating an unmanned aircraft system. To prevent the final "link" in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider which methodology?
  1. Crew Resource Management.
  2. Safety Management System.
  3. Risk Management.

Published code: UA.V.D.K1 · PDF page 6

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23You are a remote pilot for a co-op energy service provider. You are to use your UA to inspect power lines in a remote area 15 hours away from your home office. After the drive, fatigue impacts your abilities to complete your assignment on time. Fatigue can be recognized
  1. easily by an experienced pilot.
  2. as being in an impaired state.
  3. by an ability to overcome sleep deprivation.

Published code: UA.V.E.K5 · PDF page 7

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24(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) What airport is located approximately 47 (degrees) 40 (minutes) N latitude and 101 (degrees) 26 (minutes) W longitude?
  1. Mercer County Regional Airport.
  2. Semshenko Airport.
  3. Garrison Airport.

Published code: UA.V.B.K6a · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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25(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 12.) What are the current conditions for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
  1. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.
  2. Sky 7,000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain.
  3. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain.

Published code: UA.III.A.K2 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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26(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
  1. 180° true at 4 knots.
  2. 180° magnetic at 4 knots.
  3. 040° true at 18 knots.

Published code: UA.III.A.K2 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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27According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small UA within 30 minutes after official sunset?
  1. Use of anti-collision lights.
  2. Must be operated in a rural area.
  3. Use of a transponder.

Published code: UA.I.B.K9 · PDF page 7

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28To ensure that the unmanned aircraft center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading instructions specified in the
  1. Pilot`s Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual.
  2. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
  3. Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.

Published code: UA.IV.A.K1b · PDF page 8

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29According to 14 CFR part 107, who is responsible for determining the performance of a small unmanned aircraft?
  1. Remote pilot-in-command.
  2. Manufacturer.
  3. Owner or operator.

Published code: UA.I.B.K20 · PDF page 8

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30(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 59, area 2.) The chart shows a gray line with "VR1667, VR1617, VR1638, and VR1668." Could this area present a hazard to the operations of a small UA?
  1. No, all operations will be above 400 feet.
  2. Yes, this is a Military Training Route from the surface to 1,500 feet AGL.
  3. Yes, the defined route provides traffic separation to manned aircraft.

Published code: UA.II.A.K2 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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31(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26.) What does the line of latitude at area 4 measure?
  1. The degrees of latitude east and west of the Prime Meridian.
  2. The degrees of latitude north and south of the equator.
  3. The degrees of latitude east and west of the line that passes through Greenwich, England.

Published code: UA.V.B.K6a · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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32Under what condition should the operator of a small UA establish scheduled maintenance protocol?
  1. When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule.
  2. UAS does not need a required maintenance schedule.
  3. When the FAA requires you to, following an accident.

Published code: UA.V.F.K1 · PDF page 8

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33According to 14 CFR part 107, the responsibility to inspect the small UAS to ensure it is in a safe operating condition rests with the
  1. remote pilot-in-command.
  2. visual observer.
  3. owner of the small UAS.

Published code: UA.V.F.K2 · PDF page 9

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34According to 14 CFR part 48, when would a small UA owner not be permitted to register it?
  1. If the owner is less than 13 years of age.
  2. All persons must register their small UA.
  3. If the owner does not have a valid United States driver`s license.

Published code: UA.I.B.K1 · PDF page 9

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35According to 14 CFR part 48, when must a person register a small UA with the Federal Aviation Administration?
  1. All civilian small UAs weighing greater than .55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use.
  2. When the small UA is used for any purpose other than as a model aircraft.
  3. Only when the operator will be paid for commercial services.

Published code: UA.I.B.K1 · PDF page 9

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36Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?
  1. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.
  2. Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover.
  3. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

Published code: UA.V.E.K2 · PDF page 9

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37When using a small UA in a commercial operation, who is responsible for briefing the participants about emergency procedures?
  1. The FAA inspector-in-charge.
  2. The lead visual observer.
  3. The remote PIC.

Published code: UA.V.C.K1 · PDF page 9

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38What are the characteristics of stable air?
  1. Good visibility and steady precipitation.
  2. Poor visibility and steady precipitation.
  3. Poor visibility and intermittent precipitation.

Published code: UA.III.B.K1c · PDF page 10

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39You have received an outlook briefing from flight service through 1800wxbrief.com. The briefing indicates you can expect a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?
  1. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
  2. Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
  3. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

Published code: UA.III.B.K1j · PDF page 10

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40When may a remote pilot reduce the intensity of an aircraft’s lights during a night flight?
  1. At no time may the lights of an sUAS be reduced in intensity at night.
  2. When a manned aircraft is in the vicinity of the sUAS.
  3. When it is in the interest of safety to dim the aircraft's lights.

Published code: UA.I.B.K25 · PDF page 10

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41What must a person, who is manipulating the controls of a small unmanned aircraft, do if the standard remote identification fails during a flight?
  1. Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.
  2. Notify the nearest FAA Air Traffic facility.
  3. Activate the aircraft’s navigation lights.

Published code: UA.I.F.K1 · PDF page 10

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42Where must a small unmanned aircraft’s serial number be listed when using either standard remote identification or a broadcast module?
  1. The aircraft’s Document of Compliance.
  2. The manufacturer’s Method of Compliance.
  3. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

Published code: UA.I.B.K1 · PDF page 10

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43When preparing for a night flight, what should an sUAS pilot be aware of after assembling and conducting a preflight of an aircraft while using a bright flashlight or work light?
  1. Once adapted to darkness, a persons eyes are relatively immune to bright lights.
  2. It takes approximately 30 minutes for a persons eyes to fully adapt to darkness.
  3. The person should use a flash light equipped with LED lights to facilitate their night vision.

Published code: UA.V.E.K8 · PDF page 11

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44To conduct Category 1 operations, a remote pilot in command must use a small unmanned aircraft that weighs
  1. 0.55 pounds or less.
  2. 0.65 pounds or less.
  3. 0.75 pounds or less.

Published code: UA.I.E.K3a · PDF page 11

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45Which Category of small unmanned aircraft must have an airworthiness certificate issued by the FAA?
  1. 4.
  2. 3.
  3. 2.

Published code: UA.I.E.K3d · PDF page 11

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46Your surveying company is a title sponsor for a race team at the Indianapolis 500. To promote your new aerial surveying department, you decide to video part of the race using a small UA. The FAA has issued a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) for the race in the area you plan to fly. In this situation
  1. you may fly your drone in the TFR since your company is sponsoring a team at the race.
  2. the TFR applies to all aircraft; you may not fly in the area without a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization.
  3. flying your drone is allowed if you notify all non-participating people of the closed course UA operation.

Published code: UA.II.A.K3 · PDF page 11

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Sport Pilot · Airplane

SPA · 36 samples

Additional distinct samples only. Questions already present in another collection are omitted; original FAA question numbers are retained.

01With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
  1. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
  2. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
  3. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Published code: PLT371 · PDF page 2

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02Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
  1. A balloon.
  2. An aircraft in distress.
  3. An aircraft on final approach to land.

Published code: PLT414 · PDF page 2

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03May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
  1. Yes, AD's are only voluntary.
  2. Yes, if allowed by the AD.
  3. Yes, under VFR conditions only.

Published code: PLT378 · PDF page 2

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04Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
  1. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
  2. not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
  3. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.

Published code: PLT431 · PDF page 2

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05How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
  1. As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
  2. Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
  3. As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

Published code: PLT377 · PDF page 3

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06A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
  1. 10 knots.
  2. 15 knots.
  3. 25 knots.

Published code: PLT518 · PDF page 3

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07(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
  1. 1200Z to 1200Z.
  2. 1200Z to 1800Z.
  3. 1800Z to 2400Z.

Published code: PLT072 · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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08(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
  1. 230° true at 32 knots.
  2. 230° true at 25 knots.
  3. 230° magnetic at 25 knots.

Published code: PLT076 · PDF page 3 · Figure/reference required

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10What is ground effect?
  1. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an aircraft.
  2. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an aircraft.
  3. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an aircraft to the point where the wings will no longer support the aircraft in flight.

Published code: PLT131 · PDF page 4

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11An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will
  1. experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
  2. experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.
  3. require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

Published code: PLT131 · PDF page 4

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12What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of `Invulnerability`?
  1. It cannot be that bad.
  2. It could happen to me.
  3. It will not happen to me.

Published code: PLT103 · PDF page 4

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13What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
  1. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
  2. Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.
  3. Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.

Published code: PLT241 · PDF page 4

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14Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
  1. Power, pitch, bank, and trim.
  2. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.
  3. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

Published code: PLT219 · PDF page 4

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15Given the following: True course: 050 True heading: 040 True airspeed: 75 kts Groundspeed: 65 kts Determine the wind direction and speed.
  1. 105° and 16 knots.
  2. 355° and 16 knots.
  3. 355° and 10 knots.

Published code: PLT012 · PDF page 5

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16(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.
  1. 48 minutes.
  2. 44 minutes.
  3. 52 minutes.

Published code: PLT012 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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17(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 25, area 2.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport?
  1. 3000
  2. 4000
  3. 1700

Published code: PLT011 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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18The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
  1. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o`clock positions.
  2. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.
  3. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

Published code: PLT099 · PDF page 5

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19An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions within
  1. controlled airspace.
  2. uncontrolled airspace.
  3. published Visual Flight Rules (VFR) routes.

Published code: PLT116 · PDF page 6

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20When a distress or urgency condition is encountered, the pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder, who desires to alert a ground radar facility, should squawk code
  1. 7700
  2. 7600
  3. 7500

Published code: PLT497 · PDF page 6

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21Inbound to an airport with no tower or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self- announce on MULTICOM frequency
  1. 20 miles out.
  2. 10 miles out.
  3. 5 miles out.

Published code: PLT204 · PDF page 6

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22An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 270°: `TRAFFIC 3 O`CLOCK, 2 MILES, EASTBOUND...` Where should the pilot look for this traffic? ​
  1. North.
  2. South.
  3. West.

Published code: PLT194 · PDF page 6

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23The direct cause of every stall is excessive
  1. angle of attack.
  2. density altitude.
  3. upward vertical velocity.

Published code: PLT477 · PDF page 6

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24The best speed to use for a glide is one that will result in the greatest glide distance for a given amount of
  1. altitude.
  2. fuel.
  3. drag.

Published code: PLT257 · PDF page 7

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25(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 24, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
  1. 823 feet MSL.
  2. 1,013 feet MSL.
  3. 1,403 feet MSL.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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26(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?
  1. Fischer.
  2. Crooked Lake.
  3. Johnson.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 7 · Figure/reference required

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27Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
  1. Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
  2. High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
  3. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.

Published code: PLT124 · PDF page 7

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28If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
  1. equal to pressure altitude.
  2. lower than pressure altitude.
  3. higher than pressure altitude.

Published code: PLT206 · PDF page 7

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29(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
  1. 1,341 feet MSL.
  2. 1,451 feet MSL.
  3. 1,562 feet MSL.

Published code: PLT019 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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33(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?
  1. Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.
  2. Calling the Elizabeth City tower on 120.5.
  3. Radio need not be used.

Published code: PLT435 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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34(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 22.) Weather information is available for the Coeur d`Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)
  1. over the VOR frequency 108.8.
  2. from AWOS 3 135.075.
  3. from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.

Published code: PLT116 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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35(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 72.) The positive limit load factor is represented by the
  1. vertical dashed line from E to F.
  2. vertical solid line from D to G.
  3. horizontal dashed line from C to E.

Published code: PLT074 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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36(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26.) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a
  1. meteorological observation area.
  2. military observation area.
  3. military operations area.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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37(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 75.) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GBN) (area 6) is classified as Class
  1. B.
  2. C.
  3. D.

Published code: PLT040 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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38(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26.) In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip (area 2) the weather minimums are
  1. 1 statute mile visibility.
  2. 3 statute miles in all airspace.
  3. no visibility, remain clear of clouds.

Published code: PLT163 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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39The minimum flight visibility requirement for a sport pilot is
  1. 1 statute mile.
  2. 3 statute miles.
  3. 5 statute miles.

Published code: PLT163 · PDF page 10

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40Inbound to an airport with no tower or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self- announce on MULTICOM frequency
  1. 123.0.
  2. 122.9.
  3. 122.7.

Published code: PLT204 · PDF page 10

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Aircraft Dispatcher

ADX · 45 samples

Additional distinct samples only. Questions already present in another collection are omitted; original FAA question numbers are retained.

01An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an
  1. alternate airport.
  2. provisional airport.
  3. destination airport.

Published code: PLT395 · PDF page 2

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02The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
  1. Vref
  2. V1
  3. V2

Published code: PLT506 · PDF page 2

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03What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'?
  1. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
  2. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury.
  3. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

Published code: PLT366 · PDF page 2

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04Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA).
  1. 14 CFR part 91.
  2. 14 CFR part 121.
  3. ICAO annex 1, chapter 2.

Published code: PLT393 · PDF page 2

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05If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
  1. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
  2. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
  3. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Published code: PLT396 · PDF page 3

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06The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport.) is
  1. 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2.
  2. 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2.
  3. 800 - 2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2.

Published code: PLT459 · PDF page 3

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07What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
  1. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
  2. Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
  3. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.

Published code: PLT493 · PDF page 3

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08A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?
  1. Not more than 2 hours.
  2. More than 6 hours.
  3. Not more than 1 hour.

Published code: PLT422 · PDF page 3

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09If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three- engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
  1. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
  2. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
  3. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.

Published code: PLT210 · PDF page 4

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10An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carriers operations manager by the
  1. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
  2. pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
  3. certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

Published code: PLT403 · PDF page 4

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11Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?
  1. FL 180.
  2. 14,500 feet.
  3. 10,000 feet.

Published code: PLT029 · PDF page 4

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12Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?
  1. International Flight Information Manual.
  2. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
  3. Airplane Flight Manual.

Published code: PLT389 · PDF page 4

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13If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
  1. A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane.
  2. Certificate holder`s manual.
  3. Original dispatch release.

Published code: PLT436 · PDF page 5

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14By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
  1. Air route traffic control center.
  2. The aircraft dispatcher.
  3. Director of operations.

Published code: PLT398 · PDF page 5

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15For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
  1. all passenger seats.
  2. all aircraft occupants.
  3. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent.

Published code: PLT404 · PDF page 5

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16Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large turbine powered airplane
  1. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
  2. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
  3. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

Published code: PLT388 · PDF page 5

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17When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?
  1. For flights at or above FL 180.
  2. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required.
  3. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations.

Published code: PLT429 · PDF page 5

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18Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than
  1. 10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours.
  2. 8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours.
  3. 10 consecutive hours of duty.

Published code: PLT450 · PDF page 6

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19Which 14 CFR part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?
  1. Airplane Flight Manual.
  2. Pilot`s Emergency Procedures Handbook.
  3. Certificate holder`s manual.

Published code: PLT436 · PDF page 6

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20What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
  1. Stopway.
  2. Obstruction clearance plane.
  3. Clearway.

Published code: PLT395 · PDF page 6

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21Operational control of a flight refers to
  1. exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.
  2. the specific duties of any required crewmember.
  3. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Published code: PLT432 · PDF page 6

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22What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?
  1. 1/4 SM.
  2. 1/2 SM.
  3. 3/4 SM.

Published code: PLT420 · PDF page 6

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23While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?
  1. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
  2. The route filed in the flight plan.
  3. An off-airway route to the point of departure.

Published code: PLT391 · PDF page 7

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24KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060- TOP085/OVC097-TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA 07. This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates
  1. the aircraft is in light rain.
  2. the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.
  3. that the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet.

Published code: PLT061 · PDF page 7

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25Where are jetstreams normally located?
  1. In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.
  2. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.
  3. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause.

Published code: PLT302 · PDF page 7

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26Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
  1. Absence of wind and turbulence.
  2. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
  3. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

Published code: PLT203 · PDF page 7

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27If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?
  1. Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute.
  2. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.
  3. A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer.

Published code: PLT475 · PDF page 8

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28(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 149 .) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet?
  1. Temperature decrease slightly.
  2. Wind direction shift from southwest to east.
  3. Windspeed decrease.

Published code: PLT076 · PDF page 8 · Figure/reference required

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29Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may
  1. increase takeoff performance.
  2. hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will be impossible.
  3. decrease takeoff ground run.

Published code: PLT128 · PDF page 8

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30Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
  1. Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front.
  2. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.
  3. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.

Published code: PLT302 · PDF page 8

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31Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
  1. Freezing rain.
  2. Embedded thunderstorms.
  3. Clear air turbulence.

Published code: PLT495 · PDF page 8

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32Where do squall lines most often develop?
  1. Ahead of a cold front.
  2. In an occluded front.
  3. Behind a stationary front.

Published code: PLT475 · PDF page 9

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33What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
  1. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
  2. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
  3. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.

Published code: PLT240 · PDF page 9

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34What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?
  1. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight- control pressures.
  2. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.
  3. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight.

Published code: PLT473 · PDF page 9

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35Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
  1. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn.
  2. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.
  3. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.

Published code: PLT473 · PDF page 9

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36Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
  1. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.
  2. provide ice protection during flight.
  3. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.

Published code: PLT108 · PDF page 9

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37What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
  1. Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
  2. Alcohol has little effect if followed by an ounce of black coffee for every ounce of alcohol.
  3. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision- making abilities.

Published code: PLT205 · PDF page 10

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38(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?
  1. 19,800 feet.
  2. 22,200 feet.
  3. 21,600 feet.

Published code: PLT004 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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39An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
  1. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.
  2. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area.
  3. the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.

Published code: PLT379 · PDF page 10

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40Airborne weather radar is installed to help the crew
  1. penetrate weather between storm cells.
  2. avoid severe weather.
  3. avoid storm turbulence and hail.

Published code: PLT105 · PDF page 10

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41CRM training refers to
  1. the two components of flight safety and resource management, combined with mentor feedback.
  2. the three components of initial indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement.
  3. the five components of initial indoctrination awareness, communication principles, recurrent practice and feedback, coordination drills, and continual reinforcement.

Published code: PLT104 · PDF page 10

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42Error management evaluation
  1. should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
  2. may include error evaluation that should have been prevented.
  3. must mark errors as disqualifying.

Published code: PLT104 · PDF page 11

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43After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as
  1. 2 hours.
  2. necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport.
  3. necessary to land at next destination airport or alternate airport.

Published code: PLT409 · PDF page 11

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44(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 459.) For a supplemental charter, a still air range of 2,250 NM is required. The payload for this non-stop trip is
  1. 5,100 pounds.
  2. 5,900 pounds.
  3. 6,100 pounds.

Published code: PLT121 · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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45(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 273 and 475.) With a reported temperature of 32°C, and a weight of 58,000 pounds, the second segment takeoff gross climb gradient is
  1. 0.057%.
  2. 0.062%.
  3. 0.034%.

Published code: PLT004 · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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Advanced Ground Instructor

AGI · 38 samples

Additional distinct samples only. Questions already present in another collection are omitted; original FAA question numbers are retained.

04Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
  1. 2,500 feet.
  2. 3,000 feet.
  3. 4,000 feet.

Published code: PLT161 · PDF page 2

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18(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 47.) Class C airspace usually extends up to
  1. 3,000 feet MSL.
  2. 3,000 feet above airport.
  3. 4,000 feet above airport.

Published code: PLT040 · PDF page 5 · Figure/reference required

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23If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
  1. will run very rough.
  2. cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.
  3. cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

Published code: PLT478 · PDF page 6

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24What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
  1. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
  2. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
  3. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

Published code: PLT215 · PDF page 6

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25When the pilot leans the mixture control, what is being accomplished?
  1. The volume of air entering the carburetor is being reduced.
  2. The volume of air entering the carburetor is being increased.
  3. The amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is being reduced.

Published code: PLT253 · PDF page 7

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26The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
  1. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub to stall during cruising flight.
  2. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
  3. permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

Published code: PLT351 · PDF page 7

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27On a multiengine airplane, where the propellers rotate in the same direction, why is the loss of power on one engine more critical than the loss of power on the other engine?
  1. The corkscrew pattern of airflow from one propeller is less effective against the airflow from the critical engine.
  2. The torque reaction from operation of the critical engine is more severe around the vertical axis as well as the longitudinal axis.
  3. The asymmetric propeller thrust or P-factor results in the center of thrust from one engine being farther from the airplane centerline than the center of thrust from the other engine.

Published code: PLT347 · PDF page 7

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33What does a destination sign identify?
  1. Entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
  2. Direction to takeoff runways.
  3. Runway on which an aircraft is located.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 8

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34Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
  1. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
  2. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
  3. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

Published code: PLT194 · PDF page 9

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38(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 30.) Using a maximum demonstrated crosswind component equal to 0.2 VSO, what is a pilot able to determine? VSO: 60 kts Landing Rwy: 12 Wind: 150° at 20 kts
  1. Headwind component exceeds recommended limits.
  2. Crosswind component is within safe limits.
  3. Maximum demonstrated crosswind component is exceeded.

Published code: PLT013 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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39(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 31.) What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Temperature: 15 °C Pressure altitude: 4,000 ft Weight: 3,000 lb Headwind: 22 kts
  1. 1,250 feet.
  2. 1,150 feet.
  3. 1,050 feet.

Published code: PLT008 · PDF page 10 · Figure/reference required

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41How does temperature and weight affect the VNE of a helicopter?
  1. VNE increases as temperature and weight increase.
  2. VNE decreases as temperature and weight increase.
  3. VNE decreases as temperature increases and weight decreases.

Published code: PLT123 · PDF page 10

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42Performance of a helicopter can be determined by
  1. knowing the density altitude, gross weight, and surface wind.
  2. the formula pi times the rotor diameter divided by the blade area.
  3. the highest altitude that can be maintained in a hover following liftoff.

Published code: PLT124 · PDF page 11

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44To taxi on the surface in a safe efficient manner, one should use the cyclic pitch to
  1. control taxi speed.
  2. maintain heading during crosswind conditions.
  3. correct for drift during crosswind conditions.

Published code: PLT112 · PDF page 11

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45Rotor torque is a concern in gyroplanes only during
  1. prerotation or clutch engagement.
  2. maneuvers requiring high rotor rpm.
  3. maximum performance climbs and go-arounds requiring higher engine rpm.

Published code: PLT470 · PDF page 11

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46What should a pilot do if a small hole is seen in the fabric of a balloon during inflation?
  1. Continue the inflation and make a mental note of the location of the hole for later repair.
  2. Instruct a ground crew member to inspect the hole and, if under 5 inches in length, continue the inflation.
  3. Consult the flight manual to determine if the hole is within acceptable damage limits established for the balloon being flown.

Published code: PLT373 · PDF page 11

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47During flight, if you apply cyclic control pressure which results in a decrease in pitch angle of the rotor blades at a position approximately 90° to your left, the rotor disc will tilt
  1. aft.
  2. left.
  3. right.

Published code: PLT199 · PDF page 12

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48Rotor blade flapping action is
  1. an undesirable reaction to changes in airspeed and blade angle of attack.
  2. an aerodynamic reaction to high speed flight and cannot be controlled by the pilot.
  3. a design feature permitting continual changes in the rotor blade angle of attack, compensating for dissymmetry of lift.

Published code: PLT470 · PDF page 12

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49Gyroplanes that use small wings will cause rotor drag to do what at higher cruise airspeeds?
  1. Increase.
  2. Decrease.
  3. Remain the same.

Published code: PLT470 · PDF page 12

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50The forward speed of a rotorcraft is restricted primarily by
  1. dissymmetry of lift.
  2. transverse flow effect.
  3. high-frequency vibrations.

Published code: PLT470 · PDF page 12

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53At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing)
  1. increased drag, especially at a low angle of attack.
  2. decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
  3. increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.

Published code: PLT238 · PDF page 13

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55What is the effect of center of gravity on the spin characteristics of a fixed-wing aircraft? If the CG is too far
  1. aft, a flat spin may develop.
  2. forward, spin entry will be difficult.
  3. aft, spins can become high-speed spirals.

Published code: PLT245 · PDF page 13

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62If poor aircraft controllability is experienced during an emergency go-around with full flaps, the cause is most probably due to
  1. excessive airspeed with full flaps extended.
  2. the high-power, low-airspeed situation with the airplane trimmed for a full-flap configuration.
  3. a reduction in the angle of attack with full flaps to the point where the aircraft control is greatly impaired.

Published code: PLT244 · PDF page 15

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66Two distinct flight situations should be covered when teaching slow flight. These are the establishment and maintenance of
  1. airspeeds appropriate for landing approaches, and flight at reduced airspeeds.
  2. an airspeed which gives a stall warning indication, and an airspeed at which complete recovery can be made from stalls.
  3. an airspeed at which the airplane is operating on the back side of the power curve, and an airspeed at which the elevator control can be held full-back with no further loss of control.

Published code: PLT219 · PDF page 16

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68High EGT on a 2-cycle engine could be caused by
  1. high oil temperature and low oil pressure.
  2. pre-ignition, detonation or a air intake leak.
  3. improper engine operation.

Published code: PLT278 · PDF page 16

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70The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the
  1. throttle.
  2. manifold pressure.
  3. mixture control.

Published code: PLT249 · PDF page 17

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71Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft
  1. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.
  2. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment.
  3. throttle is advanced very abruptly.

Published code: PLT478 · PDF page 17

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72What effect, if any, does ambient temperature have on propane tank pressure?
  1. It has no effect.
  2. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure decreases.
  3. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure increases.

Published code: PLT253 · PDF page 17

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73The purpose of the heat exchange coil as used in hot air balloons is to
  1. prevent ice from forming in the fuel lines.
  2. warm the fuel tanks for more efficient fuel flow.
  3. vaporize the fuel for more efficient burner operation.

Published code: PLT253 · PDF page 17

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74What constitutes the payload of a balloon?
  1. Total gross weight.
  2. Total weight of passengers, cargo, and baggage.
  3. Weight of the aircraft and equipment.

Published code: PLT121 · PDF page 17

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75A standby source of fuel to an engine in a powered parachute is typically
  1. from an electrically powered pump.
  2. through gravity feed.
  3. from a pressurized fuel tank.

Published code: PLT253 · PDF page 18

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76Adding more oil to the fuel than specified by the manufacturer of a 2-cycle engine will result in
  1. increased engine performance.
  2. increased carbon buildup and engine fouling.
  3. increased engine lubrication and optimal performance.

Published code: PLT251 · PDF page 18

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77Air cooled engines dissipate heat
  1. through cooling fins on the cylinder and head.
  2. by air flowing through the radiator fins.
  3. through the cylinder head temperature probe.

Published code: PLT343 · PDF page 18

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78Carburetor ice
  1. occurs mostly as a function of temperature.
  2. can only form when the outside air temperature is near freezing with high relative humidity.
  3. is more likely to form when outside air temperatures are below 70°F and relative humidity is above 80%.

Published code: PLT190 · PDF page 18

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87Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
  1. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
  2. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
  3. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Published code: PLT115 · PDF page 20

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88What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
  1. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
  2. Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
  3. Test each brake and the parking brake.

Published code: PLT479 · PDF page 20

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89An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
  1. the oil quantity being too low.
  2. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
  3. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Published code: PLT324 · PDF page 20

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99(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane in a 30 degree bank turn if the level stall speed is 100 knots?
  1. 100 knots.
  2. 102 knots.
  3. 108 knots.

Published code: PLT018 · PDF page 22 · Figure/reference required

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Private Pilot · Helicopter

PRH · 19 samples

Additional distinct samples only. Questions already present in another collection are omitted; original FAA question numbers are retained.

01The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 10

Published code: PLT366 · PDF page 2

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07Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?
  1. Remain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude.
  2. Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.
  3. Fly right-hand traffic.

Published code: PLT170 · PDF page 3

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10If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
  1. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
  2. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
  3. the actual altitude above sea level.

Published code: PLT167 · PDF page 4

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13Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.
  1. 122.75 and 123.65 MHz.
  2. 123.0 and 122.95 MHz.
  3. 123.05 and 123.075 MHz.

Published code: PLT204 · PDF page 4

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14(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 4.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?
  1. Upper limit of the green arc.
  2. Upper limit of the white arc.
  3. The red radial line.

Published code: PLT088 · PDF page 4 · Figure/reference required

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15Ground resonance is most likely to develop when
  1. on the ground and harmonic vibrations develop between the main and tail rotors.
  2. a series of shocks causes the rotor system to become unbalanced.
  3. there is a combination of a decrease in the angle of attack on the advancing blade and an increase in the angle of attack on the retreating blade.

Published code: PLT259 · PDF page 5

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16If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?
  1. Ground resonance when ground contact is made.
  2. A settling-with-power condition.
  3. Blade stall vibration could develop.

Published code: PLT264 · PDF page 5

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18A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as
  1. spatial disorientation.
  2. hyperventilation.
  3. hypoxia.

Published code: PLT334 · PDF page 5

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19What action should the pilot take if engine failure occurs at altitude?
  1. Open the throttle as the collective pitch is raised.
  2. Reduce cyclic back stick pressure during turns.
  3. Lower the collective pitch control, as necessary, to maintain rotor RPM.

Published code: PLT208 · PDF page 5

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20What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?
  1. Do it quickly to get it over with.
  2. It could happen to me.
  3. Not so fast, think first.

Published code: PLT103 · PDF page 6

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21The lift differential that exists between the advancing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade is known as
  1. transverse flow effect.
  2. dissymmetry of lift.
  3. hunting tendency.

Published code: PLT242 · PDF page 6

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22The four forces acting on a helicopter in flight are
  1. lift, drag, thrust, and weight.
  2. lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
  3. lift, gravity, power, and friction.

Published code: PLT242 · PDF page 6

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27The `yellow demarcation bar` marking indicates
  1. a runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
  2. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
  3. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 7

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33Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
  1. Runway identification and course guidance.
  2. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
  3. Lateral course guidance to the runway.

Published code: PLT147 · PDF page 8

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38A left turn at this intersection would place the aircraft
  1. ready for a runway 26 intersection takeoff.
  2. on the taxiway leading to runway 26.
  3. ready for a runway 8 intersection takeoff.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 9 · Figure/reference required

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Source issue: Intersection image in source PDF required; not reproduced in question text. Choices are reproduced as published.

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40This sign is a visual clue that
  1. confirms the aircraft`s location to be on taxiway "B."
  2. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B."
  3. indicates "B" holding area is ahead.

Published code: PLT141 · PDF page 10

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47(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 75, west of area 6.) During preflight planning, your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?
  1. In the Aeronautical Information Manual.
  2. In the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).
  3. On the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area.

Published code: PLT064 · PDF page 11 · Figure/reference required

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49One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
  1. stability of the air mass.
  2. type of precipitation.
  3. wind direction.

Published code: PLT511 · PDF page 12

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51Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped helicopter, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
  1. 1200
  2. 7600
  3. 7700

Published code: PLT497 · PDF page 12

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Canada · PSTAR

PSTAR · 185 samples
1.01Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude?
  1. A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft.
  2. An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
  3. An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the left.
  4. Aeroplanes towing gliders must give way to helicopters.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 7

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1.02When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
  1. both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.
  2. the aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.
  3. the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
  4. the aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 7

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1.03When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?
  1. Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
  2. Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
  3. Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
  4. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to gliders.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 7

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1.04When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?
  1. Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
  2. Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
  3. Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
  4. Helicopters shall give way to gliders.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 7

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1.05When two aircrafts are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?
  1. Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
  2. Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
  3. Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
  4. Gliders shall give way to balloons.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 7

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1.06When converging at approximately the same altitude
  1. balloons shall give way to hang gliders.
  2. aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.
  3. balloons shall give way to gliders.
  4. balloons shall give way to airships.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 8

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1.07When two power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude,
  1. the one on the left has the right of way.
  2. both shall alter heading to the left.
  3. the one on the right has the right of way.
  4. the one on the right shall give way by descending.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 8

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1.08When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall
  1. decrease airspeed.
  2. increase airspeed.
  3. alter heading to the right.
  4. alter heading to the left.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 8

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1.09When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o’clock position, at your altitude, you should
  1. climb.
  2. descend.
  3. alter heading to the right.
  4. alter heading to the left.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 8

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1.10Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude shall
  1. have the right of way.
  2. overtake the lower aircraft on the left.
  3. give way.
  4. complete a 360° turn to the right.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way CARs 602.19 – Right of Way · PDF page 8

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2.01A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively in flight on the ground
  1. cleared to land; cleared to taxi.
  2. return for landing; cleared for take-off.
  3. return for landing; cleared to taxi.
  4. cleared to land; cleared for take-off.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals · PDF page 9

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2.02A steady red light directed at an aircraft means in flight on the ground
  1. give way to other aircraft and continue circling; stop.
  2. give way to other aircraft and continue circling; taxi clear of landing area in use.
  3. airport unsafe do not land; taxi clear of landing area in use.
  4. airport unsafe do not land; stop.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals TC AIM-RAC – Visual signals · PDF page 9

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2.03A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively in flight on the ground
  1. airport unsafe, do not land; taxi clear of landing area in use.
  2. give way to other aircraft and continue circling; stop.
  3. do not land for time being; return to starting point on airport.
  4. you are in prohibited area, alter course; stop.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals TC AIM-RAC – Visual signals · PDF page 9

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2.04A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively in flight on the ground
  1. cleared to land; cleared to taxi.
  2. return for landing; cleared to taxi.
  3. return for landing; cleared for take-off.
  4. cleared to land; cleared for take-off.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals TC AIM-RAC – Visual signals · PDF page 9

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2.05A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the manoeuvring area of an airport means
  1. stop.
  2. return to starting point on the airport.
  3. cleared to taxi.
  4. taxi clear of landing area in use.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals · PDF page 10

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2.06Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to
  1. return to the apron.
  2. vacate the runways immediately.
  3. be aware that an emergency is in progress; continue with caution.
  4. be aware that an emergency is in progress; hold your position.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Visual Signals · PDF page 10

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2.07Chrome yellow and black strips painted on pylons or on the roof of a building identifies
  1. an area where explosives are in use.
  2. a fur farm.
  3. an artillery range.
  4. an open pit mine.

Canadian reference: AIP Part 2 – Fur and Poultry Farms · PDF page 10

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2.08Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than
  1. 2,500 feet AGL.
  2. 2,000 feet AGL.
  3. 1,500 feet AGL.
  4. 1,000 feet AGL.

Canadian reference: AIP Part 2 – Protection of Wildlife · PDF page 10

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3.01When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the manufacturer’s name or the type of aircraft, followed by registration as
  1. Lima – Uniform.
  2. Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.
  3. Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.
  4. Charlie – Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM– Call Signs / Civil Aircraft · PDF page 11

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3.02When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-FBSQ should transmit the registration as
  1. FBSQ.
  2. Fox, Baker, Sugar, Queen.
  3. Foxtrot, Bravo, Sierra, Québec.
  4. Bravo, Sierra, Québec.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM– Use of Phonetics TC AIM-COM– Call Signs / Civil Aircraft · PDF page 11

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3.03After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions? The aircraft type and
  1. any registration letters omitted by ATS in the last communication.
  2. the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.
  3. the first three letters of the registration.
  4. the phonetic equivalents.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM– Call Signs / Civil Aircraft · PDF page 11

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3.04On initial radio contact with an ATS unit the pilot shall transmit the
  1. manufacturer’s name or type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.
  2. last three letters of the registration in phonetics.
  3. whole registration in phonetics.
  4. type of aircraft and the last three letters of the registration in phonetics.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM– Call Signs / Civil Aircraft · PDF page 11

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3.05ATIS is normally provided
  1. to replace the FSS.
  2. to relieve frequency congestion.
  3. for the rapid updating of weather forecasts.
  4. only when VFR conditions exist at airports.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC– ATIS · PDF page 11

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3.06Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the
  1. phrase “with the numbers”.
  2. phrase “ATIS received”.
  3. phrase “with the information”.
  4. ATIS phonetic identifier.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC– ATIS · PDF page 12

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3.07Pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor . . . . . and 121.5 MHZ, when practical and not in communication on the MF or ATF frequency.
  1. 126.7 MHz
  2. 123.2 MHz
  3. 122.8 MHz
  4. 122.2 MHz

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Monitoring, Broadcasting on 126.7 MHz · PDF page 12

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3.08En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on
  1. the receiver mode of the ELT.
  2. 121.5 MHz on the aircraft receiver.
  3. 121.5 MHz during the first 5 minutes of each hour.
  4. the voice frequency of the navigation aid in use.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-SAR– ELT Operating Instructions · PDF page 12

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3.09MF procedures such as frequency, distance and altitude to follow are given in the
  1. Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).
  2. Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH).
  3. Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) - TP 14371.
  4. Flight Training Manual (FTM) - TP1102.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC– Mandatory Frequency · PDF page 12

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3.10Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the
  1. aerodrome UNICOM.
  2. closest ATC unit.
  3. aerodrome traffic.
  4. first aircraft heard on the frequency.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC– Mandatory Frequency TC AIM-RAC– Use of MF and ATF, CARs 602.98 · PDF page 12

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3.11Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of
  1. 121.5 MHz.
  2. 123.2 MHz.
  3. 123.45 MHz.
  4. 126.7 MHz.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC– Aerodrome Traffic Frequency · PDF page 13

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3.12If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until
  1. beyond the specified distance or altitude.
  2. established en route.
  3. established at cruise altitude.
  4. clear of the aerodrome circuit pattern.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC– VFR Com Procedures at Aerodromes With MF and ATF CARs 602.97 – VFR and IFR Aircraft Operations at Uncontrolled Aerodromes · PDF page 13

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3.13A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to taxi to
  1. the runway in use, but must hold short.
  2. the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross each taxiway and runway en route.
  3. position on the runway without further clearance.
  4. the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Taxi Information · PDF page 13

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3.14Ground control authorizes “GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TAXI RUNWAY 29 HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY 04”. The pilot should acknowledge this by replying “GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TO
  1. RUNWAY 04”.
  2. RUNWAY 29”.
  3. HOLD SHORT OF 29”.
  4. HOLD SHORT OF 04”.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Taxi Information · PDF page 13

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3.15When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall
  1. back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off.
  2. taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.
  3. taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.
  4. complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Takeoff Clearance · PDF page 13

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3.16A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2 o’clock, 5 miles, eastbound”. This information indicates the traffic is
  1. 60° to the left, altitude unknown.
  2. 60° to the right, altitude unknown.
  3. 90° to the right, at same altitude.
  4. 90° to the left, at same altitude.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Radar Traffic Information · PDF page 14

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3.17A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “CLEARED TO LAND, TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION”. The pilot should
  1. land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely accomplish the turn.
  2. complete a touch-and-go if it is not possible to safely accomplish the turn.
  3. land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.
  4. land and do a 180° turn and taxi back to clear the runway at the required intersection.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information CAR 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances · PDF page 14

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3.18The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate serious and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is
  1. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
  2. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
  3. SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.
  4. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM – Emergency Communications TC AIM-SAR – Declaring an Emergency RTORC – Distress Communications · PDF page 14

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3.19The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is
  1. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
  2. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
  3. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
  4. URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY.

Canadian reference: RTORC – Urgency Communications TC AIM-COM – Emergency Communications TC AIM-SAR – Declaring an Emergency · PDF page 14

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3.20What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?
  1. MAYDAY(three times) , ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED, OUT.
  2. MAYDAY(once), HELLO ALL STATIONS (three times),THIS IS (the call sign of the station transmitting the message, the filing time of the message, the call sign of the station in distress (once)), SEELONCE FEENEE, OUT.
  3. MAYDAY CANCELLED (three times).
  4. ALL STATIONS (three times), EMERGENCY OVER.

Canadian reference: RTORC – Cancellation of Distress · PDF page 15

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3.21A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until
  1. the flight is 2,000 feet AGL.
  2. 25 NM from the airport.
  3. 15 NM from the Control Zone.
  4. clear of the Control Zone.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Release from Tower Frequency · PDF page 15

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3.22You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then
  1. inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.
  2. inform you of the runway in use, wind and altimeter.
  3. advise you of all other circuit traffic.
  4. clear you to land.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Initial Clearance · PDF page 15

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3.23A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by
  1. replying ‘Roger’.
  2. replying ‘Wilco’.
  3. clicking the microphone button.
  4. transmitting the aircraft call sign.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM – Standard Radio Telephony · PDF page 15

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3.24An initial call to Timmins FSS should be ‘Timmins
  1. radio this is...’
  2. Flight Service Station this is...’
  3. UNICOM this is...’
  4. this is...’

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM – Ground Stations · PDF page 15

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3.25A responsibility of a Flight Information Center (FIC) specialist is to provide
  1. air traffic control.
  2. flight planning services.
  3. air traffic service in uncontrolled airspace only.
  4. terminal radar service.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Flight Service Station (FSS) provides · PDF page 16

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3.26NOTAMs are
  1. available at all flight information centres (FIC)
  2. emailed to all pilots.
  3. issued for airport/aerodrome facility closures only.
  4. valid for 24 hours.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-MAP – NOTAM Distribution – Canadian · PDF page 16

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3.27A new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” is valid
  1. for 48 hours only.
  2. for the day it was issued.
  3. until the End Time quoted in the NOTAM.
  4. until a cancelling NOTAM is issued.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-MAP – New NOTAM · PDF page 16

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3.28The term “EST” in the End Time in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid
  1. for an estimated 24 hours.
  2. for an estimated 48 hours.
  3. until the time quoted in the NOTAM.
  4. until a cancelling (NOTAMC) or replacing (NOTAMR) is issued.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-MAP – New NOTAM · PDF page 16

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3.29ATC advises that your radio transmissions are READABILITY THREE this means that your transmissions are
  1. readable now and then.
  2. readable with difficulty.
  3. readable.
  4. perfectly readable.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM – Communications Checks · PDF page 16

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4.01An airport is
  1. an aerodrome with paved runways.
  2. an aerodrome with a control tower.
  3. an uncertified aerodrome.
  4. a certified aerodrome.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AGA – Aerodromes and Airports / General CARs 101.01 – Airport CARs 302.03 – Issuance of Airport Certificate Flight Training Manual Chapter 5 – Airport Operations · PDF page 17

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4.02A dry standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of at least
  1. 25 kt.
  2. 15 kt.
  3. 10 kt.
  4. 6 kt.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AGA – Wind Direction Indicators Flight Training Manual Chapter 5 – Airport Operations · PDF page 17

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4.03No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from
  1. the operator of the airport.
  2. the airport security officer.
  3. a federal peace officer.
  4. a qualified flying instructor.

Canadian reference: CARs 301.08 – Prohibitions · PDF page 17

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4.04Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
  1. red flags.
  2. horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals.
  3. white “Xs” on runways and yellow “Xs” on taxiways.
  4. white dumbbells.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AGA – Closed Markings · PDF page 17

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4.05The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
  1. 09.
  2. 90.
  3. 27.
  4. 270.

Canadian reference: Flight Training Manual Chapter 5 – Airport Operations · PDF page 17

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4.06Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway should normally hold
  1. clear of the manoeuvring area.
  2. 50 ft from the edge of the runway.
  3. 150 ft from the edge of the runway.
  4. 200 ft from the edge of the runway.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Taxi Holding Positions · PDF page 18

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4.07The manoeuvring area of an airport is that area
  1. normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
  2. which includes the apron, taxiways and runways.
  3. used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
  4. used for taxiing, taking off and landing.

Canadian reference: CARs 101.01 – Manoeuvring Area TC AIM-GEN – Glossary of Aeronautical Terms · PDF page 18

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4.08Except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than
  1. 2,000 feet AGL.
  2. 1,500 feet AGL.
  3. 1,000 feet AGL.
  4. 500 feet AGL.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.96 – Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Aerodrome, General TC AIM-RAC – Minimum Altitudes – Overflying Aerodromes · PDF page 18

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5.01Except for ultra-light aeroplanes and balloons, which documents shall be carried on board when flying a radio equipped Canadian privately registered aircraft? Items A, B and A. Flight Authority (Certificate of Airworthiness or Flight Permit). B. Certificate of Registration. C. Technical Records. D. Crew licences. E. Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent document. F. Type certificate. G. Aircraft journey log book, where it is planned that the aircraft will land and shutdown at any location other than the point of departure. H. Proof of liability insurance.
  1. C, D, E, G.
  2. C, D, F, H.
  3. D, E, F, G.
  4. D, E, G, H.

Canadian reference: TC AIM–LRA – Radio Operator Certificate TC AIM–LRA – Flight Authority CARs 606.02 – Liability Insurance CARs 605.03 – Flight Authority CARs 605.95 – Journey Log CARs 401.03 – Flight Crew Permit/Licence CARs 202.26 – C of R · PDF page 19

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5.02Taking into account seasonal climatic variations and geographical area, private aeroplanes and helicopters flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require
  1. specified emergency supplies be carried.
  2. a functioning radio capable of two-way radio communication.
  3. the aircraft be multi-engined when passengers are carried.
  4. all of the above

Canadian reference: CARs 602.61 – Survival Equipment – Flights Over Land · PDF page 19

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5.03A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft
  1. carrying passengers at night.
  2. carrying passengers at night except private aircraft under 5,700 kg.
  3. using an unlighted aerodrome.
  4. taking off or landing at night.

Canadian reference: CARs 605.16 – Power-driven Aircraft – Night VFR · PDF page 19

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5.04Unless oxygen and oxygen masks as specified in CARs are readily available, no person shall fly unpressurized aircraft above
  1. 9,500 feet ASL.
  2. 10,000 feet ASL.
  3. 12,500 feet ASL.
  4. 13,000 feet ASL.

Canadian reference: CARs 605.31 – Oxygen Equipment and Supply · PDF page 19

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5.05No person shall fly an unpressurized aircraft for more than . . . . . at an altitude between 10,000 and 13,000 feet ASL unless there is readily available to each flight crew member, an oxygen mask and a supply of oxygen.
  1. 15 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 1 hour
  4. 2 hours

Canadian reference: CARs 605.31 – Oxygen Equipment and Supply · PDF page 20

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5.06What safety equipment must be available to each person on board a single-engine aircraft which is taking off from or landing on water?
  1. An approved life raft.
  2. An approved life preserver.
  3. A signal flare.
  4. A signal mirror.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.62 – Life Preservers and Flotation Devices CARs 602.63 – Life Rafts and Survival Equipment · PDF page 20

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5.07The International VHF Emergency Frequency is
  1. 121.5 MHz.
  2. 121.9 MHz.
  3. 122.2 MHz.
  4. 126.7 MHz.

Canadian reference: CFS Emergency Section TC AIM-COM – Emergency Communications CARs 602.143 – Emergency Radio Frequency Capability · PDF page 20

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5.08No pilot shall take off from or land at an aerodrome at night unless the
  1. aircraft is equipped with a functioning two-way radio.
  2. aircraft is equipped with a functioning landing light or landing lights.
  3. aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister.
  4. pilot has completed 3 night landings in the previous 90 days.

Canadian reference: CARs 301.07 – Lighting · PDF page 20

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5.09The CARs define an infant passenger as a person
  1. weighing less than 30 lb (13.6 kg)
  2. under 3 years of age.
  3. weighing less than 50 lb (22.7 kg) and under 5 years of age.
  4. under 2 years of age.

Canadian reference: CARs 101.01 – Infant · PDF page 20

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5.10When the PIC directs that safety belts be fastened, an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is provided shall be
  1. fastened securely in a seat by means of a safety belt.
  2. held securely in the arms of the responsible an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened.
  3. held securely in the arms of the responsible person and a safety belt shall be fastened about both.
  4. secured by any one of the above methods.

Canadian reference: CARs 605.25 – Entering or Leaving an Aircraft in Flight CARs 605.26 – Parachute Descents · PDF page 21

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5.11Which flight instrument systems and equipment are required on power driven aircraft for day VFR flight? A magnetic direction indicating system or magnetic compass and A. an airspeed indicator. B. an attitude indicator. C. an altimeter. D. a vertical speed indicator. E. a turn and bank indicator. F. a time piece. G. a heading indicator.
  1. A, C, F.
  2. A, B, G.
  3. A, C, D, E, F.
  4. B, D, E, G.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.59 – Equipment Standards CARs 605.14 – Power-driven Aircraft – Day VFR · PDF page 21

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6.01If cleared for take-off immediately following the very low approach and overshoot of a large aircraft, the pilot should
  1. take off immediately otherwise the trailing vortices will descend into the flight path.
  2. taxi to position on the runway and wait until it is considered safe to take off.
  3. decline take-off clearance and inform ATC of the reason for non-acceptance.
  4. wait for 2 minutes after the large aircraft has passed then take off.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information Flight Training Manual Chapter 16 – Take-Off · PDF page 22

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6.02The controller offers the option for a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that
  1. the remaining runway length will not be stated by the controller.
  2. it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take- off.
  3. the controller will ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take-off.
  4. noise abatement procedures have been cancelled.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Take-off Clearance CARs 602.96 – Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Aerodrome – General · PDF page 22

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6.03A pilot requests an intersection take-off from ATC. If authorized,
  1. the controller will always give the remaining runway length.
  2. the controller will ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take-off.
  3. it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take- off.
  4. any noise abatement procedures for the runway are automatically cancelled.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Take-off Clearance CARs 602.96 – Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Aerodrome – General · PDF page 22

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6.04When an arriving aircraft is cleared “to the circuit”, the pilot should interpret this to mean join the circuit
  1. on the downwind leg at circuit height.
  2. from the upwind side of the runway in all cases.
  3. on base leg if convenient.
  4. on final for a straight in approach.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Initial Clearance · PDF page 22

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6.05When a NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing information it should maintain
  1. circuit height.
  2. 1,000 feet above circuit height.
  3. at least 2,000 feet AGL.
  4. at least 500 feet above circuit height.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Arrival Procedures – NORDO Aircraft · PDF page 22

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6.06An aircraft is “cleared to the circuit” where a left hand circuit is in effect. Without further approval from ATC a right turn may be made to
  1. join the final leg.
  2. join the base leg.
  3. join crosswind or a partial right turn to join the downwind leg.
  4. descend on the downwind leg.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Initial Clearance · PDF page 23

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6.07When instructed to continue an approach to a runway which is clear of traffic, what action should the pilot take if no landing clearance is received?
  1. Circle 360° to the left.
  2. Circle 360° in the direction of the circuit.
  3. Complete the landing.
  4. Request landing clearance.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Landing Clearance · PDF page 23

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6.08A NOTAM has been published for an airport, which is 400 feet ASL, stating the circuit height is 1,500 feet ASL. When the ceiling is 1,000 overcast and the visibility is 3 miles, the circuit height in controlled airspace should be
  1. 500 feet below the cloud base.
  2. 1,500 feet ASL.
  3. 1,100 feet above the airport elevation.
  4. 1,000 feet above the airport elevation.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.114 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight · PDF page 23

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6.09When the reported ceiling is 1,000 feet overcast and visibility is 3 miles, to remain VFR, an aircraft cleared to the circuit must join
  1. as high as possible without entering cloud.
  2. at 500 feet below cloud base.
  3. at 700 feet AGL.
  4. in accordance with Special VFR.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.114 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight · PDF page 23

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6.10Aircraft flying VFR normally join the circuit at 1,000 feet AAE. This may not always be possible because of
  1. the possibility of a “straight in” clearance to the airport in which case the final leg would normally be entered at less than 1,000 feet.
  2. the existence of a NOTAM which provides for a different circuit altitude.
  3. weather conditions which may necessitate a circuit height lower than 1,000 feet.
  4. the existence of any of the above circumstances.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Traffic Circuits – Controlled Airports · PDF page 24

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6.11A pilot on final approach is requested by ATC to reduce airspeed. The pilot should
  1. comply, giving due consideration to safe minimum manoeuvring speed of the aircraft.
  2. acknowledge transmission and execute a 360° turn.
  3. overshoot and rejoin the circuit.
  4. reduce airspeed well below normal approach speed range.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information TC AIM-RAC – Speed Adjustment – Radar Controlled Aircraft CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances · PDF page 24

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6.12A pilot is cleared to land but is concerned about the high crosswind component. The pilot should
  1. use full flaps and approach at a reduced speed.
  2. alter heading and land on another runway which is more into wind.
  3. overshoot and request an into-wind runway.
  4. continue the approach and land as the clearance must be obeyed.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Preferential Runway Assignment CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances · PDF page 24

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6.13A pilot on a VFR flight is being vectored by ATC towards an extensive unbroken layer of cloud. The responsibility for remaining VFR rests with
  1. the radar operator.
  2. ATC since the flight is designated VFR.
  3. ATC since the cloud is visible on radar.
  4. the pilot.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Radar Navigation Assistance To VFR Flights · PDF page 24

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6.14A student pilot on a VFR flight has been given a radar vector by ATC. Ahead, at a lower altitude, is a solid overcast cloud condition. The pilot should
  1. climb above the cloud and fly “VFR over the top”.
  2. alter heading as necessary to remain VFR and advise ATC.
  3. maintain heading and altitude as it is an ATC clearance.
  4. maintain heading and altitude because ATC knows of the cloud and will issue further instructions.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Radar Navigation Assistance To VFR Flights · PDF page 24

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6.15An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for a “straight in” approach. Because of low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
  1. of the pilot.
  2. of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction.
  3. of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance.
  4. shared equally by the pilot and the controller.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 25

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6.16A pilot on a Special VFR flight has been cleared to the circuit. Ahead, at a lower altitude, is a solid layer of stratus cloud. Remaining clear of cloud is the responsibility of
  1. the tower controller as it is within a Control Zone.
  2. ATC because the weather is below VFR.
  3. the pilot and ATC.
  4. the pilot.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones · PDF page 25

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6.17A pilot on a VFR flight in Class C airspace is advised by ATC to maintain a specific heading. In the pilot’s opinion, this heading will cause conflict with another aircraft. The pilot should
  1. always change altitude as required to avoid the other aircraft.
  2. maintain the specified heading to comply with the CARs.
  3. alter heading to avoid the other aircraft and advise ATC.
  4. maintain the specified heading as separation will be provided by the controller.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information CARs 602.19 – Right of Way – General · PDF page 25

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6.18Unless ATC instructs otherwise, pilots operating VFR shall select transponder code 1200 when flying at or below ..... feet ASL and code ..... when flying above that altitude.
  1. 12,500, 1400.
  2. 12,500, 1300.
  3. 10,000, 1400.
  4. 10,000, 1300.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM – VFR Operations · PDF page 25

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6.19Pilots shall activate the transponder “ident” feature
  1. before entering control zones.
  2. only when so instructed by ATC.
  3. before every change of altitude.
  4. after every change of an assigned code.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-COM – Phraseology · PDF page 25

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6.20The holder of a student pilot permit may for the sole purpose of the holder’s own flight training act as PIC of an aircraft
  1. only when accompanied by a flight instructor.
  2. by day and night and authorized by a supervising flight instructor.
  3. by day only and authorized by a supervising flight instructor.
  4. while carrying passengers.

Canadian reference: CARs 401.19 – Student Pilot Permits – Privileges · PDF page 26

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6.21The PIC of an aircraft shall comply with any light signals or ground marking prescribed in the CARs
  1. only while in class C airspace if they are part of an ATC clearance.
  2. only while in a Control Zone if they are part of an ATC instruction.
  3. at all times.
  4. at all times provided safety is not jeopardized.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances · PDF page 26

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6.22Before setting out on any VFR flight, a pilot is required to
  1. read all weather reports received from stations within 100 miles of destination.
  2. file a flight itinerary.
  3. be familiar with all available information appropriate to the flight.
  4. obtain an ATC clearance.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.71 – Pre-flight Information · PDF page 26

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6.23Terminal airspace dimensions and VHF sector frequencies for certain high density traffic airports in Canada are shown
  1. in the Designated Airspace Handbook and the TC AIM.
  2. on the VTA chart and in the CFS.
  3. on the VTA and VNC charts.
  4. in the CFS and on the VNC chart.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-MAP – VFR Aeronautical Information · PDF page 26

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7.01Avoiding wake turbulence is
  1. the sole responsibility of ATC.
  2. the responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of wake turbulence.
  3. a responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC.
  4. the sole responsibility of the pilot.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Considerations · PDF page 27

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7.02Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air
  1. dissipates immediately.
  2. dissipates rapidly.
  3. may persist for 5 minutes or more.
  4. persists indefinitely.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 27

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7.03Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence?
  1. Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.
  2. Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.
  3. Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
  4. All of the above are correct.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Vortex Characteristics / General · PDF page 27

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7.04The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft encountering them to
  1. go out of control.
  2. continue descent even when maximum power is applied.
  3. sustain structural damage.
  4. experience any of the above situations.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Vortex Characteristics / General · PDF page 27

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7.05During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip vortices will
  1. dissipate completely.
  2. dissipate rapidly.
  3. dissipate very slowly.
  4. remain at cruising altitude.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 27

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7.06The pilot of a light aircraft on final approach close behind a heavier aircraft should plan the approach to land
  1. beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
  2. prior to the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
  3. at the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
  4. to the right or left of the touchdown point of the other aircraft.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Considerations · PDF page 28

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7.08Wake turbulence is produced by
  1. heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.
  2. turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
  3. fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.
  4. all fixed and rotary wing aircraft.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 28

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7.09Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins
  1. before rotation.
  2. with rotation.
  3. after becoming airborne.
  4. with full power application.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Vortex Characteristics · PDF page 28

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7.10Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately
  1. before rotation.
  2. following take-off.
  3. above its flight path.
  4. following full power application.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 28

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7.11Which statement concerning wing tip vortices is false?
  1. Vortices normally settle below and behind the aircraft.
  2. With a light crosswind, one vortex can remain stationary over the ground for some time.
  3. Lateral movement of vortices, even in a no wind condition, may place a vortex core over a parallel runway.
  4. Vortices are caused directly by ‘jet wash’.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Vortex Characteristics / General · PDF page 28

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7.12Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is
  1. heavy, landing configuration and slow speed.
  2. heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
  3. light, clean configuration and high speed.
  4. heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 29

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7.13A helicopter in forward flight produces hazardous vortices
  1. which rise above the helicopter.
  2. similar to wing tip vortices.
  3. which remains at the same level as the helicopter.
  4. ahead of the helicopter.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 29

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7.14Which statement concerning vortices caused by helicopters is correct?
  1. Helicopter vortices are generally weak and dissipate rapidly.
  2. The size and weight of the helicopter has a direct influence on the intensity of the vortices.
  3. Helicopter vortices are less intense than the vortices of an aeroplane of the same weight.
  4. Wind does not influence the movement of vortices generated by a helicopter in hovering flight.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence · PDF page 29

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7.15What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off? A light crosswind
  1. could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time.
  2. would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
  3. would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices.
  4. would not affect the lateral movement of the vortices.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Wake Turbulence / Vortex Characteristics / General · PDF page 29

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8.01A flight crew member aware of being under a physical disability that might invalidate licence issue or renewal shall
  1. so advise the Minister.
  2. not commence a flight as a crew member.
  3. forward the licence to the Regional Aviation Medical Officer.
  4. fly as crew member only if a back-up member is available.

Canadian reference: CARs 404.06 – Prohibition Regarding Exercise of Privileges · PDF page 30

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8.02What is the recommended treatment for hyperventilation below 8,000 feet?
  1. Increase the depth of breathing.
  2. Hold the breath and perform a Valsalva manoeuvre.
  3. Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute.
  4. Increase oxygen flow rates.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Hyperventilation · PDF page 30

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8.03Damage to the ear drum in flight is most likely to occur
  1. during a climb.
  2. during a descent.
  3. when using supplementary oxygen.
  4. after SCUBA diving.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Middle Ear and Sinus Discomfort or Pain · PDF page 30

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8.04Clearing the ears on a rapid descent may be assisted by
  1. swallowing.
  2. opening the mouth widely or yawning.
  3. a Valsalva manoeuvre.
  4. all of the above.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Middle Ear and Sinus Discomfort or Pain · PDF page 30

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8.05Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when SCUBA diving should not fly for
  1. 4 hours.
  2. 8 hours.
  3. 12 hours.
  4. 24 hours.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – SCUBA Diving · PDF page 30

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8.06With regard to fatigue, which statement is correct according to the information given under the “Medical Information” section of the TC AIM?
  1. Financial or family problems do not influence tolerance to fatigue.
  2. Fatigue slows reaction time and causes foolish inattentive errors.
  3. A fatigued person recuperates more quickly as altitude is gained.
  4. A fatigued person must have food immediately before and during flight.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Fatigue · PDF page 31

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8.07A pilot who has donated blood should not act as a flight crew member for at least the next
  1. 12 hours.
  2. 24 hours.
  3. 36 hours.
  4. 48 hours.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Blood Donation · PDF page 31

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8.08Any pilot who has had a general anaesthetic should not act as a flight crew member
  1. during the next 12 hrs.
  2. during the next 36 hrs.
  3. during the next 48 hrs.
  4. unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Anesthetics · PDF page 31

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8.09Any pilot who has had a local anaesthetic for extensive dental procedures should not act as a flight crew member during the next
  1. 12 hrs.
  2. 24 hrs.
  3. 36 hrs.
  4. 48 hrs.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Anesthetics · PDF page 31

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8.10Relatively small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia (lack of sufficient oxygen). This tolerance
  1. deteriorates with increase of altitude.
  2. improves with increase of altitude.
  3. is not affected by altitude change.
  4. remains constant to 6,000 feet ASL.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Alcohol · PDF page 31

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8.11Many common drugs such as cold tablets, cough mixtures, antihistamines and other over-the- counter remedies may seriously impair the judgement and co-ordination needed while flying. The safest rule is to
  1. read the manufacturer’s warning to ensure that you are aware of possible reactions to such drugs.
  2. take no medicine when you plan to fly, except on the advice of a Civil Aviation Medical Examiner…
  3. allow at least 12 hours between taking any medicine or drugs and flying.
  4. allow at least 8 hours between taking any medicine or drugs and flying.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Drugs · PDF page 32

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8.12The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot 40 years old and over is valid, in Canada, for a period of
  1. 12 months.
  2. 24 months.
  3. 36 months.
  4. 48 months.

Canadian reference: CARs 424.04 – Issuance and Validity Period of Medical Certificate TC AIM-LRA – Medical Validity Periods · PDF page 32

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8.13The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot under 40 years of age is valid, in Canada, for a period of
  1. 72 months.
  2. 60 months.
  3. 48 months.
  4. 24 months.

Canadian reference: CARs 424.04 – Issuance and Validity Period of Medical Certificate TC AIM-LRA – Medical Validity Periods · PDF page 32

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9.01The amount of fuel and oil carried on board any helicopter at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, to provide for foreseeable delays having been considered, to fly to the destination aerodrome,
  1. and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  2. then to a specified alternate and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  3. and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  4. then to a specified alternate and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.88 – Fuel Requirements TC AIM-RAC – Fuel Requirements · PDF page 33

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9.02The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller-driven aeroplane at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, having regard to the meteorological conditions and foreseeable delays that are expected in flight, to fly to the destination aerodrome
  1. and then fly for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  2. and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  3. then to a specified alternate aerodrome and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  4. then to a specified alternate aerodrome and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.88 – Fuel Requirements TC AIM-RAC – Fuel Requirements · PDF page 33

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9.03If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed
  1. for flights proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin.
  2. only for flights in sparsely settled areas.
  3. for flights destined to land at aerodromes or places other than the point of origin.
  4. for all flights.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.73 – Requirement to File a Flight Plan or a Flight Itinerary TC AIM-RAC – Flight Plans and Flight Itineraries, When Required · PDF page 33

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9.04After landing from a VFR flight for which a flight plan has been filed, the pilot shall report the arrival to the appropriate ATS unit within
  1. 15 minutes.
  2. 30 minutes.
  3. 45 minutes.
  4. 60 minutes.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.77 – Requirement to file an Arrival Report TC AIM-RAC – Closing a Flight Plan · PDF page 33

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9.05When there is a deviation from a VFR flight plan, ATC shall be notified of such deviation
  1. as soon as possible.
  2. within 10 minutes.
  3. within 30 minutes.
  4. within 60 minutes after landing.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.76 – Changes in a Flight Plan TC AIM-RAC – Changes to the Information in a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary · PDF page 34

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9.06Where no search and rescue initiation time is specified in a flight itinerary, when shall the pilot report to the “responsible person”?
  1. Within one hour after the expiration of the estimated duration of the flight specified in the flight itinerary.
  2. Within one hour after landing.
  3. Within 24 hours after the expiration of the estimated duration of the flight specified in the flight itinerary.
  4. As soon as practicable after landing but no later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.77 – Requirement to file an Arrival Report TC AIM-RAC – Closing a Flight Plan · PDF page 34

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9.07With regard to a flight itinerary, the “responsible person” means an individual who
  1. has agreed to report the aircraft overdue.
  2. is 18 years of age or over.
  3. holds an aeronautical licence.
  4. has agreed to report the arrival of the aircraft.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.70 – Flight Preparation, Flight Plans and Flight Itineraries, Interpretation, TC AIM-RAC – Filing · PDF page 34

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9.08Where a VFR flight plan has been filed, an arrival report must be filed by the pilot
  1. by advising an ATS unit.
  2. at each intermediate stop and then reopened on take-off.
  3. by parking the aircraft in close proximity to the tower.
  4. except at airports served by a control tower in which case the controller will automatically file the arrival report.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.77 – Requirement to file an Arrival Report TC AIM-RAC – Closing a Flight Plan · PDF page 34

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9.09Estimated elapsed time A to B 1 hour 15 minutes. Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes. Estimated elapsed time B to C 1 hour 20 minutes. Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “Elapsed Time” box of a VFR flight plan?
  1. 3 hours 50 minutes.
  2. 3 hours 20 minutes.
  3. 3 hours 05 minutes.
  4. 2 hours 35 minutes.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Intermediate stops · PDF page 35

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9.10When filing a VFR flight plan with an intermediate stop, the total elapsed time to be entered is the total
  1. elapsed time for all legs including the duration of the intermediate stop.
  2. elapsed time for all legs, plus the intermediate stop, plus 45 minutes.
  3. flight time for all legs.
  4. elapsed time to the first landing plus intermediate stops.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Intermediate stops · PDF page 35

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9.11How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?
  1. By including duration of the intermediate stop in ‘Elapsed Time’ box as ATC automatically checks time between points.
  2. Same as any VFR flight plan if the intermediate time does not exceed 30 minutes at each point.
  3. By repeating the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the ‘Route’ column.
  4. By simply indicating “Intermediate Stop” in “Other Information” column.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Intermediate stops · PDF page 35

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10.01An ATC instruction
  1. must be complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
  2. must be ‘read back’ in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.
  3. is in effect advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or formal acknowledgement by the pilot concerned.
  4. is the same as an ATC clearance.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 36

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10.02An ATC clearance
  1. is the same as an ATC instruction.
  2. is advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or acknowledgement by the PIC.
  3. requires compliance when accepted by the PIC.
  4. must be complied with when received by the PIC.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 36

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10.03A pilot, after accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that all or part of the clearance cannot be complied with, should
  1. disregard the clearance.
  2. comply with only the part that is suitable.
  3. comply as best as possible under the circumstances to carry out the clearance and need not say anything to ATC.
  4. comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advise ATC as soon as possible.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 36

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10.04After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that it cannot be complied with, a pilot should
  1. take any immediate action required and advise ATC as soon as possible.
  2. comply as best as possible under the circumstances and say nothing to ATC.
  3. disregard the clearance.
  4. comply with the suitable parts.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 36

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10.05An ATC clearance or instruction is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding in accordance with a clearance or instruction
  1. ATC is relieved of the responsibility for traffic separation.
  2. the responsibility for traffic separation is divided between ATC and the pilot.
  3. the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.
  4. the pilot is relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 37

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10.06If all or part of an ATC clearance is unacceptable, a pilot should
  1. comply as best as possible under the circumstances.
  2. refuse the clearance without giving a reason for refusal.
  3. acknowledge the clearance and read back only the acceptable parts.
  4. refuse the clearance and inform ATC of their intentions.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.31 – Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances TC AIM-RAC – ATC Clearances, Instructions and Information · PDF page 37

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11.01In an emergency requiring the use of an ELT, it should be turned on
  1. immediately and left on.
  2. at the ETA in the flight plan.
  3. for the first five minutes of each hour UTC.
  4. during daylight hours only to conserve the battery.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-SAR – ELT Operating Instructions (Emergency Use) · PDF page 38

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11.02An aircraft’s 121.5 MHz ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime
  1. following a hard landing.
  2. during the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.
  3. following a component or battery change.
  4. prior to flight and listening on 121.5 MHz.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-SAR – ELT Testing Procedures CARs 605.40 – ELT Activation · PDF page 38

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11.03Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft’s ELT is not transmitting by
  1. checking that the ELT switch is in the off position.
  2. listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.
  3. ensuring that the master switch is off.
  4. checking the ELT visual warning light.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-SAR – ELT Operating Instructions (Normal Use) · PDF page 38

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11.04All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the
  1. airport manager.
  2. R.C.M.P.
  3. Minister.
  4. nearest ATS unit.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-SAR – Accidental ELT Transmissions, CARs 605.40 · PDF page 38

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11.05When an aircraft engine is left running on the ground and no person remains onboard, the aircraft’s movement must be restricted and
  1. it must remain in sight of the pilot at all times.
  2. it must not be left unattended.
  3. its gross weight must be below 4,409 LB (2,000 kg).
  4. its control locks must be installed.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.10 – Starting and Ground Running of Aircraft Engines · PDF page 38

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11.06When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing
  1. should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control.
  2. is safe if you can see under the thunderstorm through to the other side.
  3. should be avoided unless the take-off can be made away from the thunderstorm.
  4. is safe if the thunderstorm is regarded as light.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Flight Ops Near Thunderstorms / Considerations · PDF page 39

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11.07An isolated thunderstorm is in close proximity to your aerodrome of intended landing. You should
  1. land giving due consideration to wind shear on final approach.
  2. hold over a known point clear of the thunderstorm until it is well past the aerodrome.
  3. land as quickly as possible.
  4. add one-half the wind gust factor to the recommended landing speed and land.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Flight Ops Near Thunderstorms / Considerations · PDF page 39

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11.08The take-off thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for
  1. 1,200 feet.
  2. 900 feet.
  3. 500 feet.
  4. 450 feet.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Jet and Propeller Blast Danger · PDF page 39

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11.09The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least
  1. 200 feet.
  2. 450 feet.
  3. 600 feet.
  4. 750 feet.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Jet and Propeller Blast Danger · PDF page 39

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11.10The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least
  1. 200 feet.
  2. 450 feet.
  3. 600 feet.
  4. 750 feet.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Jet and Propeller Blast Danger · PDF page 39

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11.11The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for
  1. 200 feet.
  2. 450 feet.
  3. 600 feet.
  4. 750 feet.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Jet and Propeller Blast Danger · PDF page 40

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11.12A 45 kt blast area can be expected ..... behind the propellers of a large turbo-prop aeroplane during taxi.
  1. 60 feet.
  2. 80 feet.
  3. 100 feet.
  4. 120 feet.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-AIR – Jet and Propeller Blast Danger · PDF page 40

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11.13ATC advises that simultaneous operations are in progress at an airport. Pilots could expect a clearance to
  1. take-off over top of an aircraft on an intersecting runway.
  2. take-off on a specified parallel runway.
  3. land and hold short of an intersecting runway.
  4. land on a specified parallel runway.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Operations on Intersecting Runways · PDF page 40

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11.14When issued a clearance to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, pilots
  1. shall comply regardless of the circumstances.
  2. may taxi across the intersection after the departing or arriving aircraft has cleared their path.
  3. who inadvertently go through the intersection should immediately do a 180° turn and backtrack to the hold position.
  4. should immediately inform ATC if they are unable to comply.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – Operations on Intersecting Runways · PDF page 40

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12.01ADIZ rules normally apply
  1. only to aircraft flying above 12,500 feet.
  2. only to aircraft flying at true airspeeds of 180 kt or more.
  3. only to all southbound aircraft.
  4. to all aircraft.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.145 – ADIZ TC AIM-RAC – Defence VFR Flight Plans and Defence Flight Itineraries · PDF page 41

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12.02When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown
  1. clear of aerodrome traffic zones.
  2. clear of control zones.
  3. with visual reference to the surface.
  4. in compliance with all of the above.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.114 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight CARs 602.115 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight · PDF page 41

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12.03Normally, a helicopter in uncontrolled airspace at less than 1,000 feet AGL may operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than
  1. ½ mile.
  2. 1 mile.
  3. 2 miles.
  4. 3 miles.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.115 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 41

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12.04What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1,000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?
  1. At least 2,000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically.
  2. At least 1 mile horizontally and 500 ft vertically.
  3. At least 2 miles horizontally and 500 ft vertically.
  4. Clear of cloud.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.115 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 41

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12.05No person shall drop anything from an aircraft in flight
  1. which will create a hazard to persons or property.
  2. unless approval has been granted by the Minister.
  3. unless over an authorized jettison area.
  4. unless it is attached to a parachute.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.23 – Dropping of Objects · PDF page 41

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12.06A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an aircraft
  1. over an airport provided the appropriate frequency is monitored.
  2. over the suburban area of a city above 2,000 feet AGL.
  3. within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.
  4. within Class C airspace when the visibility is 1 mile or greater.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.27 – Aerobatic Manoeuvres – Prohibited Areas and Flight Conditions · PDF page 42

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12.07CARs state that after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, no person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within
  1. 12 hours.
  2. 24hours.
  3. 36 hours.
  4. 48 hours.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.03 – Alcohol or Drugs – Crew Members · PDF page 42

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12.08‘Day’ in Canada is that period of time between
  1. sunrise and sunset.
  2. one hour before sunrise and one hour after sunset.
  3. the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.
  4. the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight.

Canadian reference: CARs 101.01 – Day TC AIM-GEN – Glossary of Aeronautical Terms · PDF page 42

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12.09‘Night’ in Canada is that period of time between
  1. sunset and sunrise.
  2. the beginning of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight.
  3. one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise.
  4. the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Canadian reference: CARs 101.01 – Night TC AIM-GEN – Glossary of Aeronautical Terms · PDF page 42

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12.10Formation flying is permitted only if such flights
  1. have been pre-arranged by the pilots-in-command.
  2. are conducted above 3,000 feet AGL.
  3. are conducted by commercial pilots.
  4. are led by a pilot whose licence is endorsed for formation flight.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.24 – Formation Flight · PDF page 42

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12.11Flight through active Class F airspace with the designator CYR
  1. may be undertaken only by aircraft equipped with two-way radio communication and a transponder.
  2. is restricted to military aircraft operating under the authority of the Minister of National Defence.
  3. will be approved only for aircraft on IFR flight plans under positive radar control.
  4. is permitted only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.04 – IFR or VFR Flight in Class F Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Class F Airspace · PDF page 43

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12.12Which statement is correct with regard to “advisory airspace”?
  1. A transient aircraft entering active advisory airspace shall be equipped with a serviceable transponder.
  2. Non-participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active periods specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM.
  3. Aircraft need to be equipped with a two-way radio to enter active advisory airspace.
  4. Only military aircraft may enter advisory airspace depicted on aeronautical charts.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.04 – IFR or VFR Flight in Class F Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Class F Airspace · PDF page 43

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12.13Except as provided by CARs, unless taking off, landing or attempting to land, no person shall fly a helicopter over a built-up area or open air assembly of persons except at an altitude that will permit, in the event of an emergency, the landing of the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface, and such altitude shall not be less than ..... above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of ..... from the aircraft.
  1. 3,000 ft, 1 mile.
  2. 2,000 ft, 1,000 ft.
  3. 1,000 ft, 500 ft.
  4. 500 ft, 500 ft.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.14 – Minimum Altitudes and Distances · PDF page 43

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12.14Over non-populous areas or over open water, a pilot must maintain a minimum distance of ..... feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
  1. 200
  2. 500
  3. 1,000
  4. 2,000

Canadian reference: CARs 602.14 – Minimum Altitudes and Distances · PDF page 43

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12.15Except for balloons and as provided by CARs, no person shall cause any aircraft to take off or attempt to take off from, land on or attempt to land on, any surface within the built-up area of any city or town unless
  1. the aircraft is multi-engined.
  2. all obstacles on approach and departure can be cleared by a minimum of 500 ft.
  3. that surface is an airport or military aerodrome.
  4. noise abatement procedures are followed.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.13 – Take-offs, Approaches and Landings Within Built-up Areas · PDF page 44

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12.16What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the Cruising Altitudes Order?
  1. 700 feet.
  2. 2,200 feet.
  3. 3,000 feet.
  4. 3,500 feet.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.34 – Cruising Altitudes and Cruising Flight Levels TC AIM-RAC – Cruising Altitudes and Flight Levels · PDF page 44

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12.17An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a track of 290°M shall be flown at an
  1. even thousand foot altitude.
  2. even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.
  3. odd thousand foot altitude.
  4. odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.34 – Cruising Altitudes and Cruising Flight Levels TC AIM-RAC – Cruising Altitudes and Flight Levels · PDF page 44

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12.18The selection of a cruising altitude in the southern domestic airspace should be based on the
  1. true track.
  2. magnetic track.
  3. true heading.
  4. magnetic heading.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.34 – Cruising Altitudes and Cruising Flight Levels TC AIM-RAC – Cruising Altitudes and Flight Levels · PDF page 44

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12.19Every person who is the holder of any pilot licence or permit shall, on demand, produce such licence or permit for inspection by persons authorized by the Minister, by peace officers and
  1. FSS operators.
  2. Transport Canada airport managers.
  3. immigration officers.
  4. all of the above.

Canadian reference: CARs 103.02 – Inspection of Aircraft, Requests for Production of Documents · PDF page 44

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12.20Low Level Airspace is defined as, all airspace
  1. extending upwards from 2,200 feet AGL within designated airways.
  2. extending upwards from 1000 feet AGL within designated airways.
  3. extending upwards from the surface of the earth within designated airways.
  4. within the Canadian Domestic Airspace below 18,000 feet ASL.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-RAC – High and Low Level Airspace · PDF page 45

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12.21A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
  1. 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
  2. 700 feet above the surface of the earth.
  3. the surface of the earth to 3,000 feet.
  4. a specified height above the surface of the earth.

Canadian reference: CARs Part 101.01 – Control Zone TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones · PDF page 45

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13.01‘Controlled Airspace’ means all airspace of defined dimensions within which
  1. Control Zone regulations are in force.
  2. security regulations are in force.
  3. Special VFR flight only is permitted.
  4. an ATC service is provided.

Canadian reference: CARs 101.01 – Controlled Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Controlled Airspace · PDF page 46

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13.02When in VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
  1. 500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
  2. 500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.
  3. 1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
  4. 1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.114 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 46

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13.03The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight within a low level airway is
  1. 1 mile.
  2. 1½ miles.
  3. 2 miles.
  4. 3 miles.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.114 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 46

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13.04When in VFR flight within a Control Zone, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
  1. 500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.
  2. 500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
  3. 1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
  4. 1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.114 – Minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions for VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 46

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13.05VFR cross-country pilots wishing to cross through any part of a Class C Control Zone should
  1. advise the associated FSS.
  2. monitor the Approach Control frequency.
  3. advise ATC of their intentions and obtain a clearance.
  4. conform with circuit direction at that airport.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.08 – VFR Flight in Class C Airspace TC AIM-RAC – VFR Operations Within Class C Airspace · PDF page 46

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13.06ATC may authorize an aircraft equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day SVFR provided the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility, are each not less than
  1. ½ mile.
  2. 1 mile.
  3. 2 miles.
  4. 3 miles.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.117 – Special VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, Special VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 47

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13.07ATC may authorize a helicopter equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day SVFR where the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility are each not less than
  1. 1 mile and operated at not less than 500 feet AGL.
  2. ½ mile.
  3. 1 mile.
  4. ½ mile and operated at not less than 500 feet AGL.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.117 – Special VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, Special VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 47

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13.08An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
  1. a Control Zone.
  2. an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
  3. a Terminal Control Area.
  4. an airway.

Canadian reference: CARs 602.117 – Special VFR Flight TC AIM-RAC – Control Zones, Special VFR Weather Minima · PDF page 47

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13.09An arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower
  1. upon entering an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
  2. prior to entering a Control Zone.
  3. immediately prior to joining the circuit.
  4. immediately after entering a Control Zone.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.08 – VFR Flight in Class C Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Arrival Procedure – Controlled Airports, Initial Contact · PDF page 47

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13.10VFR flight within Class B airspace is permitted
  1. only when the flight visibility is 5 miles or better.
  2. for all aircraft except gliders and balloons.
  3. if the pilot holds a Class B Airspace Endorsement.
  4. in accordance with an ATC clearance.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.07 – VFR Flight in Class B Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Class B Airspace · PDF page 47

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13.11The pilot of an arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace
  1. immediately after entering the Control Zone.
  2. 10 NM outside the Control Zone.
  3. prior to entering the Control Zone.
  4. immediately prior to joining the circuit.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.08 – VFR Flight in Class C Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Class C Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Arrival Procedure – Controlled Airports, Initial Contact · PDF page 48

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13.12Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight operating within a Class C terminal control area must
  1. exit the airspace whenever the weather deteriorates below VFR limits.
  2. establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the associated control zone.
  3. establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC Unit.
  4. contact radar service only when taking off or landing at the major airport concerned.

Canadian reference: CARs 601.08 – VFR Flight in Class C Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Class C Airspace TC AIM-RAC – Arrival Procedure – Controlled Airports, Initial Contact · PDF page 48

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14.01The primary objective of an aviation safety investigation into an aircraft accident or aircraft incident is to
  1. apportion blame and liability.
  2. determine the adequacy of insurance regulations.
  3. enforce regulations.
  4. prevent recurrences.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-GEN – Aviation Safety Investigation · PDF page 49

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14.02Details on civil aviation accident reporting procedures can be found in the
  1. TC AIM
  2. Canadian Aviation Regulations.
  3. Canada Flight Supplement.
  4. Aviation Safety Manual.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-GEN – Reporting an Aviation Occurrence · PDF page 49

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14.03When an aircraft accident occurs, the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB
  1. within 7 days by registered mail.
  2. within 24 hours by telephone.
  3. within 48 hours by facsimile.
  4. as soon as possible and by the quickest means available.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-GEN – Information to Report · PDF page 49

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14.04The TSB shall be notified of a reportable aviation accident when
  1. a person sustains serious or fatal injury as a result of being in or coming into direct contact with any part of an aircraft.
  2. an aircraft sustains damage or structural failure adversely affecting performance or flight characteristics and requiring major repair or replacement.
  3. an aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible.
  4. any of the above conditions exist.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-GEN – Accidents · PDF page 49

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14.05The TSB considers missing aircraft to be
  1. a reportable aviation incident.
  2. an occurrence which need not be reported.
  3. an aviation incident which need not be reported.
  4. a reportable aviation accident.

Canadian reference: TC AIM-GEN – Accidents · PDF page 49

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